Does ANYONE understand The Trinity & The Godhead?
Debate Rounds (3)
In John 5:37 and 1 Timothy 6:16, I read that there is an 'invisible to man' FATHER, that no man has EVER seen, or heard His voice, at ANY time.
Many have seen God and Christ (including me). In Acts 7:55-56, Stephen sees Christ standing on the right hand of God. In Revelation chapters 4 & 5, John sees these two figures. I saw these two figures in a vision (the same as Stephen did). Isaiah 44:6 is referring to these same two figures as being called 'GOD'. Genesis 1:26 must also be referring to these same two figures. The disciples heard a voice from heaven/clouds stating, "This is my Son in whom I am well pleased." In the OT, God speaks to many people, and Numbers 12:6 tells us that God makes Himself known unto prophets in a vision, and speaks to them in a dream.
It seems to me, that the so-called Trinity (Father, Son and Holy Ghost) cannot include Jesus Christ. The Lord God Almighty must be 'THE SON' of The Trinity, with Jesus (The Lord of Hosts) being His only begotten Son. Together, The Lord God Almighty and Jesus Christ must have created all other creations.
Revelation 1:6 KJV Bible seems to be telling us, that even 'GOD' has a Father.
It appears that the Christian ministry and the 'anointed' of the Bible, have never ASKED GOD for an understanding of this topic. I did.
I'm not a Christian per se, but I am a Theist who believes that the teachings of Jesus Christ are consistent with the will of a higher being. My mother is Catholic, so I have some background in the Christian faith. I hope my interpretation proves interesting.
Genesis 1:27 tells us that God created man in his own image. As you say, the Father is described as being inaccessible to man, at least in the sensory respect. Certainly, He, taken alone, is without "image" in any ordinary sense of the word. Yet Christ is also God, and alike in appearance to you or I.
I'm of the opinion that 1:27 tells us about much more than the yet to appear visage of Christ. I'm not the slightest bit familiar with Hebrew, but few translations between two languages are exact, so I interpret the word image in a broader sense, and it's my thinking that, more than being created in God's image, we were created in His same form. It's a hard claim to evidence, but when "God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them," the word man seems to lack gender; it's used like the word mankind. The pronoun "them" refers back to "man", and in other translations, "him" is substituted with "them" as well. Anyway, getting to the point, Christ is, in His image, alike to man and not to woman. Yet Genesis doesn't make this distinction.
I believe that this passage relates man and God in form and not simply appearance. Jesus Christ has a material self, just as we do. In His material incarnation, Jesus is apart from the Father and the Holy Ghost, yet his word is the word of the entire Trinity. Besides physical form, Jesus/God possesses a consciousness, and just as your consciousness is not directly accessible to me and vice versa, His consciousness is not sensible by our eyes and ears. That conscious, experiencing mind is, in my interpretation, the Father. We cannot see, nor hear Him, but His immaterial thought became the speech of Jesus Christ in the same way our thoughts become speech. The Holy Ghost would then be analogous to the human soul, quite apart from the mind, since the soul persists beyond death and the mind does not. Mankind was created in the form of God, that is, as a tripartite being.
That's how I interpret the Trinity.
"It seems to me, that the so-called Trinity (Father, Son and Holy Ghost) cannot include Jesus Christ. The Lord God Almighty must be 'THE SON' of The Trinity, with Jesus (The Lord of Hosts) being His only begotten Son. Together, The Lord God Almighty and Jesus Christ must have created all other creations." Could you clarify this paragraph? What is the role of the Holy Ghost here, and if not Jesus, who is the third member of the Trinity.
As for Revelation 1:6, the NIV and ESV both translate it as "and has made us to be a kingdom and priests to serve his God and Father--to him be glory and power for ever and ever! Amen." which makes sense, because the passage is in reference to Christ the Son.
Thank you for your input. I do not know how you come to the conclusions (understanding) of the scriptures that you reference. I am 'baffled' by your posting.
pcmb forfeited this round.
Thorwald forfeited this round.
pcmb forfeited this round.
1 votes has been placed for this debate.
Vote Placed by Ragnar 3 years ago
|Agreed with before the debate:||-||-||0 points|
|Agreed with after the debate:||-||-||0 points|
|Who had better conduct:||-||-||1 point|
|Had better spelling and grammar:||-||-||1 point|
|Made more convincing arguments:||-||-||3 points|
|Used the most reliable sources:||-||-||2 points|
|Total points awarded:||0||0|
Reasons for voting decision: Fail debate, both sides dropped out.
You are not eligible to vote on this debate
This debate has been configured to only allow voters who meet the requirements set by the debaters. This debate either has an Elo score requirement or is to be voted on by a select panel of judges.