Is Muhammad prophesied in the Bible?
Debate Rounds (5)
Round 1 - Acceptance to debate ONLY
Round 2 - Opening Statements
Round 3 - 1st rebuttals
Round 4 - 2nd rebuttals
Round 5 - Finish your rebuttal, then make a concluding statement
I already did a a debate with a Muslim on this very topic, but after his opening statement, he forfeited. So I would appreciate it, that the person who accepts this debate is actually a Muslim, and will not forfeit.
Good luck to anyone who accepts.
It'll be Pro's burden to prove that the answer to this debate question is a "yes." My only job is show that he hasn't done an adequate job proving that his prophet is predicted in the Bible.
Now, instead of Muhammad just claiming to a be a prophet, which would only require him to be consistent with previous revelations, namely the Old and New Testament, predict future events with 100% accuracy, and not make any false predictions or statements, Muhammad went beyond all that and claimed that his coming as a prophet is predicted in the Bible, namely the Torah and the Gospel.
From the Qur'an, there are two places where Muhammad makes this claim:
Surah 7:157 - Those who follow the Messenger, the unlettered prophet, whom they find written IN WHAT THEY HAVE of the Torah and the Gospel. (Sahih International)
Surah 61:6 - And [mention] when Jesus, the son of Mary, said, "O children of Israel, indeed I am the messenger of Allah to you confirming what came before me of the Torah and bringing good tidings of a messenger to come after me, whose name is Ahmad." (Sahih International)
Now, notice what Surah 7:157 and 61:6 says, it is basically saying that we Jews and Christians will find prophecies of Muhammad, one of which must be by name in the scriptures that we have access to, so it won't be sufficient for Pro to argue that "we can't find Muhammad in your scriptures because they have been corrupted". This goes beyond what the Qur'an says, and it wouldn't make sense for Muhammad to argue for his prophet-hood from our scriptures if they have been hopelessly corrupted.
Also, having your coming as a prophet wasn't necessarily required to be a prophet, most prophets didn't have their coming foretold in the Bible. But since Muhammad made this claim, I just want to make myself clear, if Muhammad was wrong about this, then he just disproved his claim to be a prophet, so this challenge MUST be met, otherwise Muhammad exposes himself as a false prophet for making a false statement while claiming to speak on behalf of God.
So let me just make myself clear again, Pro MUST show me where his prophet can be found in the Torah and the Gospel, this is basically a falsification test for Muhammad, if my opponent can show me that indeed his prophet is predicted in our scriptures, then Jews and Christians are to follow him. If he fails to meet this burden, then Muhammad is a false prophet for making a false statement in what he claims to be revelation from God, namely the Qur'an.
I've seen virtually every verse in the book that Muslims make copious appeal to in order to prove Muhammad is predicted, and none of them fit Muhammad, when read in context.
That's all I have, and good luck to Pro.
1- we find in Habakuk 3:3 the story of God's help from Teman and the Holy one coming from Paran and Paran is the land where Ishmael settled according to Genesis so this is the place where Muhammed lived and Teman according to dictionary of Bible is a north Oasis in Arabia.
2-Isaiah 21:13 is describing those who live in Tema and that Kedar warriors would be defeated in War which what Muhammed did when he defeated Arabs
3-Deutronomy 33:1-2 are speaking abput Holy One from Mount Paran again(Arabia)
4-Isaiah 42:10-11 is speaking about people of Kedar singing God's songs (Quran)
5-Psal, 84:4-6 is blessing people who visit the house in Valley of Baca which in the Quran Baca is the name used to refer to Mecca and Allah's House there (The Sacred Mosque) which Muhammed ordered to do pilotrimage there and the well there whoch is Zamzam Well of Muslims
6- Deut 33:1-2 when Moses said that God shone through Mount Paran (Hometown of our Blessed Prophet of Mercy Muhammed)
7-Isiah 42 is sepaking about the Servant of God who would establish Justice on Earth and "Islamds" is repeated amd to make him a loght for the gentiles and sing a "new" song from mountaintops and the People of Kedar and the Lord marching as a warrior who eill defeat his enemies in battle sounds to me like a perfect description of our Holy Prophet.
8- Regarding John speaking about the Sprirt if Truth and comforter I believe he is spaeling about Muhammed and not a spirit since it says that many false lying spirits would come which proves that Spirit is amhuman-being simce the verse refers to false prophets as lying spirits then the Spirit of Truth is also a proohet
9-Isaiah 29:12 saying The Book would be given to someone who cant read and will say "Read" and He would say "I cant read" and this what exactly happened to Prophet during the forst revelation and "illiterate" is exactly the verse the Quran refers to when it says Imdeed He is the illiterate prophet you would find prophecised in your scriptures (Torahand Gospel)
10-Deutronomy 18:5 a prophet among your brethern (Ishmailites) and Muhammed is the only prophet descenedant of Ishmael peace and blessing be upon them
11- The jews asked John the Baptist (Peace be upon him) are you Eljah ? He said no Are you Christ (Awaited Messiah) He said No then they said are you the Prophet ?? Which clearu refers to the prophet in Deut. like Moses amd this proces that Messaih and Prophet are two distinct person
I am just astonished that my opponent would take this verse and apply it to Muhammad. Just read the passage itself, it says "GOD comes from Teman, THE HOLY ONE from Mount Paran" This passage is talking about God, not a human being, so if you think this is a prophecy about Muhammad, then you are guilty of shirk for identifying Muhammad as God.
My opponent made reference to Isaiah 21:13 and mentioned how "those who live in Kedar and Tema will be defeated in war" and this is what Muhammad did.
Again, read the passage itself, and read it in context. This is talking about the present, it's not a prediction of a prophet to come. Isaiah 21:16, which is part of the context of Isaiah 21:13 says the Lord will do this within 1 year. Isaiah was written around 700 B.C.E, Muhammad was born over 800 years later, so it is not possible that this can be talking about Muhammad, when the passage says this will happen within 1 year.
My opponent made reference to Deuteronomy 33 and mentioned that it is talking about a man from Arabia.
First of all, the passage is in past tense, it says "he came", not "he will come". And second of all, this is talking about something the Lord did, if you think this is about Muhammad, then you are again guilty of shirk for identifying Muhammad as the Lord.
My opponent made reference to Isaiah 42 and mentioned that it is talking about a servant of God who fits the description of Muhammad.
Notice what my opponent did, he played hop scotch through the verses, he skipped this verse went over that verse, and so on. The passage doesn't leave us guessing as to who this servant will be from, Isaiah 41:8, immediately before the prophecy explicitly says who the servant is:
Isaiah 41:8 - "But YOU, ISRAEL, ARE MY SERVANT, Jacob whom I have chosen, The descendants of Abraham My friend.
The servant is Israel, it is not an Arab. Isaiah 42 is one of 4 servant songs in Isaiah.
And what Isaiah does it very interesting, on the one hand the servant is referred to as Israel, yet on the other hand, he refers to the servant as an individual among Israel, so the term 'Israel' is doing double duty, this is a fact that most scholars recognize. So anyways, Isaiah 42 is talking about an Israelite, not someone from Arabia.
My opponent mentioned Psalm 84 and pointed out how God will bless those who visit his house in Baca, which is another name for Mecca.
First of all, the passage doesn't even remotely say what you said it says, you are misquoting Psalm 84. Psalm 84 says that pilgrims travel through the valley of Baca, the passage is not saying a prophet will arise from Baca, even if we were to assume "Baca" means Mecca. Second of all, Baca in this passage literally means "weeping", so the valley of Baca is referring to the Valley of Weeping, and this passage is not a prediction of a prophet to come anyways.
My opponent made reference to John's Gospel and argued that the comforter or spirit is a human being because the New Testament says that many lying spirits will come.
If you're going to use John's Gospel to prove that the comforter is Muhammad, then at least accept what the New Testament says concerning the identity of the comforter, in John 14:26 Jesus explicitly identifies the comforter as the Holy Spirit, not a prophet who is to come 600 years later, and besides the passage in question is a promise to the disciples, Muhammad was born 600 years after the disciples, so Muhammad can't be the comforter, if the promise is to the disciples. And second of all, even if we were to assume that the comforter is Muhammad, then you have managed to prove that Muhammad's God is Jesus Christ, and that the Qur'an has been corrupted, just follow with me on this:
The passage says that the comforter will be sent by Jesus Christ in John 15:26, according to Islam, Muhammad was sent by Allah, and this passage says that Jesus is the one who sends the comforter, who is for the sake of argument is Muhammad.
Therefore, if the comforter is Muhammad, and Jesus sent the comforter, but according to Islam, Allah sent Muhammad, the conclusion: Jesus is Muhammad's God.
How this proves the Qur'an has been corrupted is because if Jesus was in fact Muhammad's God, then Muhammad would've taught that God was our Father and Jesus Christ was his Son. But the Qur'an denies both teachings very explicitly. So the logical conclusion is that the Qur'an has been corrupted because Muhammad would've never taught that Jesus is not the Son if Jesus Christ was his God.
You see the problem...even if we were to assume Muhammad is the comforter, the logical conclusion would be that Jesus is Muhammad's God because Jesus sends the comforter (Muhammad), which would also end up proving the Qur'an you have today has been corrupted.
If you reject this line of reasoning, then stop saying the comforter is Muhammad, because this is the conclusion we arrive at if we assume Muhammad was the comforter.
My opponent made reference to Isaiah 29:12 and how the passage reads a book will be given to someone who can't read saying "read this" and he will say "I cannot read", and this is a reference to his illiterate prophet (Muhammad).
First of all, read the passage in context, the passage is not a prophecy of a prophet to come, but rather judgement on the Nation of Israel for refusing to hear the word of God. Let's read the passage in context...
Isaiah 29:10 - The LORD has brought over you a deep sleep: He has sealed your eyes, the prophets; he has covered your heads, the seers.
Isaiah 29:11- For you this whole vision is nothing but words sealed in a scroll. And if you give the scroll to someone who can read, and say to him, "Read this, please," he will answer, "I can't; it is sealed."
Isaiah 29:12 - Or if you give the scroll to someone who cannot read, and say, "Read this, please," he will answer, "I don't know how to read."
Isaiah 29:13 - The Lord says: "These people come near to me with their mouth and honor me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me. Their worship of me is made up only of rules taught by men.
Notice, Isaiah 29:13 says "these people" not "this prophet", so already the context isn't talking about one individual who receives a book and claims that he can't read, this is referring to Israel coming up with excuses to ignore the words of God, so God will punish them for their persistent rebellion is refusing to hear the word of God. It's not talking about a prophet from Arabia, it is talking about rebels in Israel. But if you still insist that Isaiah 29:12 is about Muhammad, then I agree, Muhammad is a rebel who's worship of God consists of rules taught by men, not of God.
My opponent made reference to Deuteronomy 18, saying that "brethren" means Ishmaelites.
What "brethren" means is not left to guess work, the passage itself defines the term for us, immediately before the prophecy:
Deuteronomy 17:15 - you shall surely set a king over you whom the LORD your God chooses, one from among your brethren you shall set as king over yourselves; YOU MAY NOT PUT A FOREIGNER OVER YOURSELVES WHO IS NOT YOUR BRETHREN.
So quite clearly, brethren is explicitly defined as an Israelite from among the 12 tribes of Israel, not someone from Arabia. In fact, the passage itself warns the Israelites not to put a foreigner as king over them, so this disqualifies Muhammad as the prophet of Deuteronomy 18.
My opponent made reference to John 1:19-25 and how the Israelites were asking John the Baptist if he was Elijah, the Christ, or the Prophet, therefore, the prophet is someone other than the Christ.
First of all, if the prophet to come was an Arab, why are the Jews asking John the Baptist if he was the Prophet? Was he an Arab? No, he was an Israelite. If you're going to say that Jews were wrong in thinking that the prophet was an Israelite, then be consistent and say that they were also wrong in thinking that the prophet and the Christ are two separate individuals. But if the Jews were right in thinking that the prophet was an Israelite, then this disqualifies Muhammad as the prophet.
If you just continue reading the New Testament, in John 5:45-47 Jesus says:
John 5:45-47 - "Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father. There is one who accuses you: Moses, on whom you have set your hope. IF YOU BELIEVE MOSES, YOU WOULD BELIEVE ME; FOR HE WROTE OF ME. But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe my words?""
The prophet of John 1:19-21 was the same prophet as the one spoken of in Deuteronomy 18, and later in the Book of Acts, the Apostle Peter quotes Deuteronomy 18 (the prophet of John 1:19-21) and applies it to Jesus:
Acts 3:19-23 - Repent therefore and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord, 20 and that He may send Jesus Christ, who was preached to you before, 21 whom heaven must receive until the times of restoration of all things, which God has spoken by the mouth of all His holy prophets since the world began. 22 For Moses truly said to the fathers, "The Lord your God will raise up for you a Prophet like me from your brethren. Him you shall hear in all things, whatever He says to you. 23 And it shall be that every soul who will not hear that Prophet shall be utterly destroyed from among the people.
So quite clearly, the prophet of John 1:19-21 is Jesus Christ, not someone from Arabia, the Jews were wrong in assuming that the prophet and the Christ are two distinct individuals, but they were right in thinking that the Prophet was an Israelite, which is why they asked John the Baptist if he was the prophet.
Regarding the prophecy of Isaiah 21:13 so if it really means 1 year then is this an unfullfilled prophecy ? Did anything happen to Arabs 1 year after ?? NO ! or even to Babylion or Edom ? Within 1 year ?? NO! the answer is in Quran when it says "The year of your Lord is like ONE THOUSAND year from what you count" and then 1year is 1000 years and so 1000 years after 700 BC makes us at the time of Muhammed amd I also have Christian friend who agreed on that based on Jesus saying His Second comimg is close and 2000 years passed wothout anything
And Deutronomy 33:2 again show me where God came from Sinai ?? Did He loterrally come from there ? Does the Bible say God of Israel is Egyptian amd did He drown over from Seir and shone from Paran ? No it is metaphorical meaning refering to Moses when talking about Sinai and Jesus when referring to Seir and Muhammed referring to Paran ? Then if not Muhammed tell me how God shone from Paran ??
Isaiah 42 is referring to Israel as servant ? Then how was the servant supposed to be "Light for Gentiles" amd what is the new songs the people of Kedar sing ? Assuming jesus was the servant so is his new song (Assuming NT) is sang by Kedar (Gulf states and Saudi Arabia) ?? and rhe Lord will march like Champion and he will shout a battle cry this seemslike isaiah prophecy and did Jesus get into battles ?? In Kedar ?? No only Muhammed made people of Kedar sing a new song amd Jesus wasnt for gentiles as he says innMathew "I cant take the bread from children and five it to dogs" referring to Gentiles as dogs! Anyway thanks Jesus and it says free captives from prison? Did Jesus do that or Muhammed did when he orders in Surat Al Balad "Free captives"mand Chapter of Muhammed "When war ends free captices by ransom or for the sake of God" amd read verse 9 "Before they spring into being" so it is a prophecy of a NEW SERVANT and verse 17 saying who puts his hope in idols will have utter shame so when Jesus supposed was the servant was his message to idol-worshippers or Muhammed was ? and if he was really from Israel why berse 18 crticises Israel as blind and deaf ??
regarding Psalm 84 my opponent clearly approves that the verse blesses those eho make pilgrimage to a HOUSE in Valley of Baca so who does pilgrimage to a house in a valley nowadays for God ? And their book claims that this valley they go for pilgrimage is called Baca and it isnt only a Quranic claim and if you open Lisan Al Arab on of the oldest Arabic dictionaries and it says that pre-islamic times even the city of Mecca was called Baca by Arabs before Islam and if it really means Valley of weeping why David blesses those who do pilgrimage there ? And whose follwers go pilgrimage to a valley called Baca ? I guess Muhammed !
Regarding Gospel of John amd the "comfortor" the Sirit of Truth is no way sent by Jesus but the Spirit of Truth will be sent by the Father as John 14:16-17 Jesus says "I will ask my Father and HE will give you another Helper " seems to me like the Father sends the comfortor and by the way he is a man because when Gospel of John refers to False Prophets (Human) it says "lying SPIRITS" so a truthful prophet is a "Spirit of Truth"
And here is another berse to proof a prophet would be a stranger and not an Isrealite Prophet as Isaiah 28:11 "For by people of strange lips and FOREIGN tongues the Lord will speak to this people " which shows that God!s message will be with a foreign toungue (Arabic) which is Al Quran. and a last proof in Genesis when God says toHagar "I will make his descendants into a great nation" and His sons were Kedar and Tema which are the fathers of Arabs so when did Arabs necame a GREAT nation ? The Arab tribes of Pre-Islamic history who were weak and scattered or the nation of Muhammed when the Arabs get united under Islamic Caliphate ? The Arabs were never "Great" nation until Islam came and God telling that means he APPROVES the "Great Nation" of Arabs who were the first generation of Muslims and if we want to assume that "great nation" meant a believing one, Arabs (descendants of Ishmael) were idolaterors until Islam appeared between them and made them Worship One God who created the Universe. So whic nation is the great nation God is talking about with Hagar ? The Idolaterors or the Monothiestic Muslims ?
First of all, the Holy One, unless the context suggests otherwise is a title of God, not of a prophet to come. So again, do you believe that Muhammad is God, if not, then stop trying to say that this is talking about Muhammad. It doesn't matter what the passage says, it is talking about God, not a prophet from Arabia. This Passage is talking about God coming down to Earth in human flesh, it is talking about a future event, so this still hasn't happened yet, it is not a prophecy of a prophet from Arabia.
My opponent still insists that Isaiah 21:13 is about Muhammad, and if not him, this is an unfulfilled prophecy.
Again, just read the context, it is not talking about Muhammad and his warriors, yes it is about Arabia, and about the fact that the Assyrians (?) will attack the Northern Arabian tribes and will destroy their pomp and reduces their army to a small band. Sargon, king of Assyria is mentioned in 20:1 and most of the judgements described in these chapters are fulfilled in Sargon's military advancements. And in 715 B.C. Sargon also attacked the Northern Arabian tribes. This is probably the background / fulfillment to the prophecy. I've already said, this verse says that these things happened within a year, and this verse is not a prophecy of a prophet to come anyways...
"Jesus saying His Second comimg is close and 2000 years passed wothout anything"
Jesus didn't say that...what he did say is that his second coming will happen at a time when we least expect it (i.e an unknown time in the future).
My opponent still insists that Isaiah 42 is about Muhammad, because how could Israel be a light to the Gentiles, he asks.
I guess my opponent didn't read my rebuttal...remember, I don't have to show Isaiah 42 is about Jesus, I only have to show it's not about Muhammad. When the verse calls the servant Israel, I already explained how the term "Israel" is doing double duty, Israel can be either be referring to the nation as a whole, or to an individual among the nation. Isaiah 42 is talking about an Israelite, as the passage says, it is not a prophecy about a prophet from Arabia. You made reference to all these extraneous appeals to "Kedar" and "Tema" and all this other good stuff, first of all, the passage may make reference to Kedar, but again, that doesn't mean that's where the prophet comes from, I already made it clear that Israel is the servant being spoken of here, which in this context, refers to an individual among the nations of Israel.
My opponent still insists that Psalm 84 is praising those wo make pilgrimage to God's house in Baca.
First of all, I already said that "Baca" doesn't mean Mecca, this word is used elsewhere in the Hebrew Bible:
"Once more the Philistines came up and spread out in the Valley of Rephaim; so David inquired of the LORD, and he answered, "Do not go straight up, but circle around behind them and attack them in front of the balsam (Hebrew- Baca) trees."" 2 Samuel 5:22-23
The Valley of Baca is actually less than 5 miles away from Jerusalem, Mecca is not 5 miles away from Jerusalem, it makes sense that the Psalmist is speaking of pilgrims making their way through Baca valley to appear before God in Zion. Again, this is a one time event, it is not talking about an annual pilgrimage to Baca, even if we were to assume that Baca means Mecca, which it doesn't.
My opponent tried to argue that the Spirit of Truth in John's Gospel will be sent by the Father.
As I already demonstrated, Jesus himself says who the spirit of truth is in John 14:26:
But the comforter, THE HOLY SPIRIT, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach YOU all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you.
Notice, Jesus explicitly mentions who the comforter is, so if you're going to use John's Gospel to prove the spirit of truth is Muhammad, then you have to accept how the Gospel identifies the spirit of truth (comforter). Quite clearly it is the Holy Spirit, not a prophet to come 600 years later. And just look at what Jesus says in John 14:26, he says the comforter will teach YOU (the disciples). This is not a long term prophecy, this is a prophecy TO THE DISCIPLES. In fact, this prophecy find sits fulfillment of the day of Pentecost:
"When the day of Pentecost came, they were all together in one place. Suddenly a sound like the blowing of a violent wind came from heaven and filled the whole house where they were sitting. They saw what seemed to be tongues of fire that separated and came to rest on each of them. All of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them." Acts 2:1-5
This is the fulfillment of the comforter promise, not 600 years later.
And just read the passage itself, John's Gospel says the comforter will live INSIDE THE DISCIPLES (John 14:17). Did Muhammad live inside the disciples of Jesus? Could Muhammad be inside multiple people at once? The obvious answer is no, Muhammad is not the spirit of truth, as the context makes quite plain.
My opponent mentioned how in Isaiah 28:11, God will speak his message to foreigners.
Just read the passage:
"Very well then, with foreign lips and strange tongues God will speak to this people, to whom he said, "This is the resting place, let the weary rest"; and, "This is the place of repose"" but they would not listen." Isaiah 28:11-12
God is speaking to the Nation of Israel here, just like always, the only difference in this passage is that he is not speaking to them in a language and tone different from what they were used to. And this is not a prediction of a prophet to come, the verse finds immediate fulfillment in the very next verse, as I have just showed you.
I'll appeal to one passage:
"If what a prophet proclaims in the name of the Lord does not take place or come true, that is a message the Lord has not spoken. That prophet has spoken presumptuously, so do not be alarmed." Deuteronomy 18:22
Muhammad's statement that he could be found in our scriptures ends up being a false statement, so according to Deuteronomy 18:22, Muhammad is a false prophet.
If you want to find anything relevant to Muhammad in our scriptures, one place which he is found is 1 John 2. Remember, the same Moses he appealed to referred to God as the Father of his people (Deuteronomy 32:6), the same Isaiah he appealed to called God Father (Isaiah 63:16), the same Apostle John he appealed to called God our father (1 John 3:1).
Well, that same Apostle John tells us what to think of Muhammad, by inference:
"Who is the liar but the one who denies that Jesus is the Christ? HE IS ANTICHRIST, THE ONE WHO DENIES THE FATHER AND THE SON"
Muhammad denied the Father and the Son...
Even if there was to be a prophet who was to be from Arabia, it wouldn't have been Muhammad, it would not be a prophet who denied the Father and the Son.
The Qur'an very clearly condemns the belief that Jesus is the Son (Surah 9:30) and very clearly denies that God is a Father to anyone (Surah 5:18).
Therefore, Muhammad is under the eternal condemnation of the God of Moses, the God of Isaiah, and the God of John; for denying the Father and the Son.
Loubna forfeited this round.
Pro still insists that Muhammad fulfills Deuteronomy 33, because it makes mention of Mount Paran.
Again...for the 2nd time, this passage is talking about something the Lord did. All Deuteronomy 33 is saying is that God appeared to Moses, sent him to Egypt, he performed miracles, and then talks about the Exodus. The reference to Seir doesn't talk about Jesus, let alone Moses, Jesus, and Muhammad. It's simply a recollection of the revelation given to Moses, the miracles he did, and the Exodus, not a prediction of a prophet who comes over 2000 years later.
Pro made a lot of extraneous appeals from Isaiah 42 itself to somehow parallel the accounts with what Muhammad did.
Like I said, the servant is Israel, more specifically an individual within the nation of Israel. Muhammad was not from Israel, therefore, nothing that you say and try to parallel it with Muhammad's life would make a difference, Isaiah is very clear that this servant is an Israelite, not an Arab.
And also, in my 2nd rebuttal I made a typo when responding to Isaiah 28:11:
What I meant to say was that God wasn't saying that he would give his message to another nation, rather he would continue giving his message to Israel, but now he was going to give it to them in a language different from what they were used to.
With that said, Pro has failed to give anything from the Bible that's fits Muhammad in a positive sense.
Keeping Deuteronomy 18:22 in mind, Muhammad has been proven to be a false prophet, he spoke something while claiming to receive revelation, and in the process of doing so, ended up saying a false statement. As I already said, my opponent can't argue that the Bible has been corrupted if he can't find his prophet in our Book, because Muhammad wouldn't have even thought about appealing to our book as proof of his prophet-hood if he knew our book was corrupted.
Let me just show you what the Bible has to say about Muhammad, by inference obviously:
Jeremiah 23:16 - This is what the Lord Almighty says: "Do not listen to what the prophets are prophesying to you; they fill you with false hopes. They speak visions from their own minds, not from the mouth of the Lord.
Matthew 7:15 - "Beware of false prophets, who come to you in sheep's clothing but inwardly are ravenous wolves."
Matthew 24:24 - For false Christs and false prophets will arise and perform great signs and wonders, so as to lead astray, if possible, even the elect.
Romans 16:17-18 - I urge you, brothers and sisters, to watch out for those who cause divisions and put obstacles in your way that are contrary to the teaching you have learned. Keep away from them. For such people are not serving our Lord Christ, but their own appetites. By smooth talk and flattery they deceive the minds of naive people.
Galatians 1:8 - But even if we or an angel from heaven should preach a gospel other than the one we preached to you, let them be under God"s curse!
2 Peter 2:1 - But there were also false prophets among the people, just as there will be false teachers among you. They will secretly introduce destructive heresies, even denying the sovereign Lord who bought them"bringing swift destruction on themselves.
1 John 2:22 - Who is the liar? But the one who denies that Jesus is the Christ. He is Antichrist, who denies the Father and the Son.
The verses that are damaging to Muhammad are Galatians 1:8 and 1 John 2:22.
Muhammad preached a different Jesus from the one in the New Testament, something which Paul warned us that false prophets would come along and do.
Muhammad denied the Father and the Son, therefore, according to the Apostle John, Muhammad is Antichrist.
Therefore, Muhammad's appeal to the Bible in support of his prophet-hood actually ends up being strong evidence against his prophet-hood.
Loubna forfeited this round.
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