Is There A Biblical Prohibition Against Poligamy
Debate Rounds (3)
There will no doubt be many who will argue that polygamy is a sin however you just read the fact that the God of Abraham Isaac and Jacob gave polygamy to David. David was a man after God's own heart.
People who would argue that God made Adam and Eve are not wrong but we must remember, this was a perfect union. When sin entered into the picture so did polygamy. No is was not God's perfect plan for mankind but neither was sin.
You just heard the God of the universe state He gave David polygamy, please whomever is willing to debate against this fact, please do!
Yes, there is a biblical prohibition against polygamy, but under certain terms. Polygamy was considered wrongful when men took on wives (specifically, when David and Solomon married girls from "heathen nations" not given to them by Nathan the Prophet) I don't understand your connection between sin and polygamy, it doesn't really make any sense. God doesn't make mistakes, how is allowing Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Moses, David and Solomon among others to marry multiple wives a sin?
You state there is in fact a prohibition on polygamy, please give the verse(s) that you cite to back this claim up. I know the Bible well and know of no such verse(s) however I can admit when I am wrong. I look forward to seeing the verse(s) you use to prove there is in fact a prohibition against this practice.
I have given what I believe is proof of God actually giving this practice to David. Many use the verse where the Bible says that kings should not multiply wives (Deut 17:17) as they say this proves God is against the practice of polygamy however the verse I used to start this debate is enough to show even kings can have multiple wives they are just forbidden to "Multiply" wives. This, as we se in the verse used at the beginning, is God giving many wives to David.
I am looking forward to a great debate.
I think, in Deut. 17:17, God meant something along the lines of "Don't take so many wives that you become prideful, as it happens with excessive silver and gold" However, in 1 Cor. 7:2, It states "But because of the temptation to sexual immorality, each man should have his own wife and each woman her own husband." I believe God does in fact give nations polygamy but only when and if they are being righteous, its not an unconditional "Marry whoever you want whenever you want." It was important back then to keep the Gospel lineage passing down to further generations, so if the wives/ mothers of those generations were not teaching her children the word of God, it could be detrimental to their existence.
So, in essence, I'm less debating you, and mainly qualifying your argument with some conditions tacked on the the end. I'm sorry if that's not what you were looking for^^
I am happy to debate this and for the record am glad you brought up the Bible passage from Cor. If one looks at the Greek you will see there is NO "Own" in "Own Wife". The only time 'Own' is ever used is in 1 Tim when the Bible commands Bishops to have only 'One wife' however, the word used in this instance is "Mia" meaning the first. When Christ arose He arose on the "Mia" day of the week. The Mia referred to in Timothy means first.
No where is Scripture is man commanded to have only one wife, on the contrary only Bishops. Women, on the other hand, are in fact commanded to have only "One husband". This is plainly stated in the Greek.
So it there inequality with God? I quote Romans, " Can the clay say to the Potter, "Why have you made me thus?"
Please note: No where is Scripture do you find the command to have one wife for Christians.
Looking forward to your rebuttal.
1 votes has been placed for this debate.
Vote Placed by bladerunner060 2 years ago
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Reasons for voting decision: Pro basically conceded. From the evidence in this debate, there is no biblical prohibition against polygamy, although there are conditions in which it might not be acceptable. Arguments therefore to Con. All other categories seemed equal enough. As always, happy to clarify this RFD.
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