Moral codes from God are subjective.
Debate Rounds (4)
Round 1 - Acceptance.
Rounds 2 and 3 - Arguments and rebuttals.
Round 4 - Final rebuttal/closing argument.
Best of Luck!
I left the resolution more vague than I should have and apologize for that. Maybe it will make for a more interesting debate?
I will make arguments from two different interpretations of the resolution to "cover my bases," so to speak.
First the obvious argument:
1. Until a single God is shown to be objectively existent, all moral codes offered as "from God" or "being of God" are offered by humans and are by definition, subjective.
Going a step further:
2. Assuming God actually does exist, any objective moral code would be moral, non-reliant upon God's existence and God simply reveals this code to us to follow. But then, that wouldn't be considered "from" God but "through" God as a moral messenger of sorts. Accounts of God's given moral codes to each respective belief system (as each belief system is equally likely to be true) are sometimes so varied and often contradictory that it leaves little hope of ever living "Real God's" moral code, since such a determination must also be done subjectively.
If the behavior of a large sector of the populace is regulated by the behavior of the Son Of Man then moral codes are not subjective in that instance.
http://www.gordonconwell.edu...). This to me screams subjectivity.
This problem, I think, stems from my original argument that until a God can be shown to objectively exist, any moral code attributed to those Gods are subjective by default.
Adding to the objectivity issue is the question, "How does one determine which translation of the Bible is correct in order to know the true moral code?"
The true magic of Christianity is below the surface where greater forces rule and determine the conduct of the sector in question.
As I have successfully countered both of Con's arguments so far, I anxiously await the closing statement. Thank you for the debate.
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