Morals are biased and heavily influenced by the opinion of the majority.
Debate Rounds (3)
I wish the contender good luck. (This is more of a debate on philosophical standpoints rather than raw facts and evidence.)
I believe that morals are biased and are based completely on a person's own definition of good and bad. Let's say that I am a robber who has recently stolen another's personal property. If I were to have stolen something famous, such as the mona lisa, and were to have escaped, I would label said situation as favorable. According to the Merriam Webster defintion of good, "a (1) : of a favorable character or tendency <good news> (2) : bountiful, fertile <good land>(3) : handsome, attractive <good looks>" this situation would be "good" for the robber. However, based on society's views on said robbery, it would seem unfavorable to the majority, thereby defining it as the opposite of good, also known as bad. Using this example, the idea of morals would be based on the viewpoint, the robber's defintion of "right" or good being different than that of the majority's.
-->>As there's only three rounds, I will begin my outlining my opening argument in this round--then proceed with rebuttals and closing arguments within the next two. As Con, I will be arguing against the resolution: that morals are biased and heavily influenced by the opinions of the majority.
In order to offer some clarification, the definition(s) of 'morals' is as follows:
1. Of or concerned with the judgment of right or wrong of human action and character: moral scrutiny; a moral quandary.
2. Teaching or exhibiting goodness or correctness of character and behavior: a moral lesson.
3. Arising from conscience or the sense of right and wrong.
4. a particular system of values and principles of conduct.
Firstly, it's important to establish where 'morals' actually come from--#4 specifically states that there is a correlation between morals and the conscience of a human being; and their sense of right and wrong. In addition to that, morals extend beyond the personal feelings of the individual. For example, just because someone has chosen to ignore certain moral standards, it doesn't necessarily mean that these standards are subjective and dependant on what the perception of the said individual is. If someone commits a crime (in Pros case, a robbery.), just because they are not following a widely accepted moral (that stealing is wrong) it does not automatically devalue that moral or indeed suggest that it is 'biased' in some way--essentially, morals are not based on ones own definition of what is 'good' and 'bad', but are a specific set of principles that cannot be done or undone by personal opinion.
The point is to demonstrate that people cannot objectively determine what their own morals are and how they apply them; these morals are established, and a person can either follow them or not.
In terms of how morals are influenced by the opinions of the majority--again, this is largely incorrect; as opinion is a different thing to morality. Opinions vary all the time are not based on or in adherence to any one set of rules or standards. Whereas morality is, as #4 states, a particular system of values and principles; values and principles that are to be applied to the benefit of society and interest of the human race: they are not simply interchangeable opinions, but ethics that people can accept or reject--however, cannot alter.
purplesnower forfeited this round.
purplesnower forfeited this round.
1 votes has been placed for this debate.
Vote Placed by dsjpk5 6 months ago
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Reasons for voting decision: Pro ff many times, so conduct to Con.
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