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Muhammad(pbuh) is mention in the Bible

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Voting Style: Open Point System: 7 Point
Started: 5/24/2012 Category: Religion
Updated: 4 years ago Status: Post Voting Period
Viewed: 1,141 times Debate No: 23819
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I am going to be arguing that the Prophet Muhammad was prophesised in both the old and new testament.

First round for acceptance.


I accept.

I request that we use the Biblia Sacra Vulgata.
Debate Round No. 1


Old Testament prophecy foretold by Gods Revelation to Moses(pbuh)

Deuteronomy 18:18 "I (God) will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee (Moses), and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him."

Many Christians believe this prophecy foretold by Moses to be in regards to Jesus. Indeed Jesus was foretold in the Old Testament, but as will be clear, this prophecy does not befit him, but rather is more deserving of Muhammad, may the mercy and blessings of God be upon him. Moses foretold the following:

1. The Prophet Will Be Like Moses. Muhammad(pbuh) is more like Moses (pbuh) than Jesus(pbuh)

1) Both had a father and a mother, while Jesus (pbuh) was born miraculously without any
male intervention.
[Mathew 1:18 and Luke 1:35 and also Al-Qur'an 3:42-47]

2) Both were married and had children. Jesus (pbuh) according to the Bible did not marry nor
had children.

3) Both died natural deaths. Jesus (pbuh) has been raised up alive. (4:157-158) or according to christians crucified

4) Both are called prophets only. But Jesus is also called the son of god by christians

5)Both were accepted by their people. Jesus was not accepted by his own people the Jews. "He (Jesus) came unto his own, but his own received him not" (John 1:11)

6) Both were buried in Grave. Jesus according to christians, empty tomb.

7) Both had victory over oponents. For Moses pharaoh drowned. For Muhammad(pbuh) meccans defeated. Jesus (pbuh) according to christians was crucified by his opponents.

8) Both had political authority. Jesus refused political authorityJohn 18:36.

9) Both were not claimed to be resurrected on earth. Christians claim Jesus (pbuh) was.

2. The Awaited Prophet will be from the Brethren of the Jews
The verse in discussion is explicit in saying that the prophet will come amongst the Brethren of the Jews. Abraham had two sons: Ishmael and Isaac. The Jews are the descendants of Isaac's son, Jacob. The Arabs are the children of Ishmael. Thus, the Arabs are the brethren of the Jewish nation.[3] The Bible affirms:

‘And he (Ishmael) shall dwell in the presence of all his brethren.' (Genesis 16:12)

‘And he (Ishmael) died in the presence of all his brethren.' (Genesis 25:18)

The children of Isaac are the brethren of the Ishmaelites. Likewise, Muhammad is from among the brethren of the Israelites, because he was a descendant of Ishmael the son of Abraham.

3. God Will Put His Words in the Mouth of the Awaited Prophet
The Quran says of Muhammad:

"Neither does he speak out of his own desire: that [which he conveys to you] is but [a divine] inspiration with which he is being inspired." (Quran 53:3-4)

This is quite similar to the verse in Deuteronomy 18:15:

"I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him" (Deuteronomy 18:18)

The Prophet Muhammad came with a message to the whole world, and from them, the Jews. All, including the Jews, must accept his prophethood, and this is supported by the following words:

"The LORD thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like unto me; unto him ye shall hearken." (Deuteronomy 18:15)


No Biblia Sacra Vulgata? Aww :(

Anyhow, on to the debate. It appears that my opponent's case hinges on Liber Deuteronomii. I will address his arguments.

First, examine the biblical scripture. As the Biblia Sacra Vulgata says (Deuteronomy 18:18)

"(18) prophetam suscitabo eis de medio fratrum suorum similem tui et ponam verba mea in ore eius, loqueturque ad eos omnia, quae praecepero illi."

Having done this, I see that my opponent's translation is more or less accurate. I will now address his arguments (for real this time).

1. The Prophet will be like Moses

My opponent here cites many random similarities between Muhammad and Moses, in fact I'm surprised he left out that the English versions of their names both start with the letter "M". These similarities are relatively insignificant. For example, I can counter with the following random similarities between Moses and Jesus.

a) Moses and Jesus were Israelites

b) Moses and Jesus sacrificed great wealth for solidarity with their people (Hebrews 11:25-26 and 2 Corinthians 8:9)

c) Moses and Jesus were both hidden for their safety (Exodus 2:2, Matthew 2:13)

d) Moses and Jesus were both in exile until the death of a hostile king (Exodus 2:23, Matthew 2:19-20)

e) Moses and Jesus were brought up by men who were not their natural fathers (Exodus 2:9-10, Luke 2:33)

My opponent and I can keep pointing out similarities, but all in all that would be a waste of effort. Pro needs to show areas of great importance in which Moses and Muhammad were similar.

2. The Awaited Prophet will be from the Brethren of the Jews

This alone will not prove anything, as there are so many brethren of the Jews and not all of them can possibly be the awaited prophet. However, if I successfully demonstrate that this could not refer to Muhammad, than the entire prophecy cannot possibly relate to him.

I concede that Arabs are the children of Ishmael and the Jews are children of Jacob, even though I see no source for that. That changes nothing.

Although I borrowed the title for this section from my opponent (and the opening paragraph uses that title), note that the actual verse does not say that the awaited prophet will come from the bretheren of the Jews. The Biblia Sacra Vulgata states "suscitabo eis de medio fratrum suorum". The trick is in the world "suorum", meaning (according to my rudimentary Latin knowledge) "their". Even my opponent's source concurs with me here. The question now stands "Whose bretheren?" (or, "The bretheren of whom?").

The obvious (and wrong) answer is "the Jews", seeing as that is whom this appears to be about. But where else do we see "fratrum suorum" being used? The Biblia Sacra Vulgata clearly states (Deuteronomy 18:2)

"(2) et nihil accipient de possessione fratrum suorum: Dominus enim ipse est hereditas eorum, sicut locutus est illis."

Huh. That's odd. Let's look at Deuteronomy again to get some more context (Deuteronomy 18:1)

"(1) Non habebunt sacerdotes le vitae, omnis tribus Levi, par tem et hereditatem cum reliquo Israel; de sacrificiis Domini et hereditate eius comedent"

Okay, okay, the Levites are special. What does this prove? They are said to receive no inheritance among their bretheren. Their bretheren are stated as being "reliquo Israel". The only logical conclusion that can be drawn from this is that the bretheren being spoken of consist solely of the remaning tribes of Israel.

It is only reasonable to assume that the bretheren being spoken of in Deuteronomy 18:18 are the same ones mentioned in Deuteronomy 18:2. This is the most logical conclusion when the scripture is properly examined. Literally the exact same phrase is used, and there is no reason to believe that the sixteen verses in the interim were sufficient to change the meaning to "bretheren of the Jews", especially as most of them concerned the Levites. I remind everyone that Jesus was a Jew.

3. God will put His Words in the mouth of the Awaited Prophet

I contend that the similarity between Quran 53:3-4 and Deuteronomy 18:15 is not conclusive. It is not proof that Muhammad has the Words of God in his mouth. Even if one credits it fully, it just says that Muhammad is being inspired, not necessarily that God is putting His Words in in Muhammad's mouth. The Biblia Sacra Vulgata, however, claims that God put His Words in the mouth of Jesus as follows (John 12:49-50)

"(8) quia verba, quae dedisti mihi, dedi eis; et ipsi acceperunt et cognoverunt vere quia a te exivi et crediderunt quia tu me misisti."

Of particular note is the phrase "verba, quae dedisti mihi" which translates roughly to "the words, which you have given to me". If that's not conclusive, I don't know what is.


I believe that I have provided substantial evidence preferring Jesus as the fulfillment of the Deuteronomical prophecy my opponent mentioned, or at the very least demonstrating that it could not be Muhammad.

*Note that formatting was destroyed by*

Debate Round No. 2


New Testament Propehcies. I am now going to present propehcies by Jesus himself, in the previous round we established that the prophet will be like moses how there is still confusion whether it is Jesus or Muhammad (pbuht). However a prophecy by Jesus himself which I am going to show means that it must be someone other than Jesus but fits Muhammad (pbuh) perfectly.

John 14:16 “And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever.” (American Standard Version)

In this verse, Jesus promises that another “Comforter” will appear, and thus, we must discuss some issues concerning this “Comforter.”

The Greek word paravklhtoß, ho parakletos, has been translated as ‘Comforter.’ Parakletos more precisely means ‘one who pleads another’s cause, an intercessor.’[1] The ho parakletos is a person in the Greek language, not an incorporeal entity. In the Greek language, every noun possesses gender; that is, it is masculine, feminine or neutral. In the Gospel of John, Chapters 14, 15 and 16 the ho parakletos is actually a person. All pronouns in Greek must agree in gender with the word to which they refer and the pronoun “he” is used when referring to the parakletos. The NT uses the word pneuma, which means “breath” or “spirit,” the Greek equivalent of ruah, the Hebrew word for “spirit” used in the OT. Pneuma is a grammatically neutral word and is always represented by the pronoun “it.”

All present day Bibles are compiled from “ancient manuscripts,” the oldest dating back the fourth century C.E. No two ancient manuscripts are identical.[2] All Bibles today are produced by combining manuscripts with no single definitive reference. The Bible translators attempt to “choose” the correct version. In other words, since they do not know which “ancient manuscript” is the correct one, they decide for us which “version” for a given verse to accept. Take John 14:26 as an example. John 14:26 is the only verse of the Bible which associates the Parakletos with the Holy Spirit. But the “ancient manuscripts” are not in agreement that the “Parakletos” is the ‘Holy Spirit.’ For instance, the famous Codex Syriacus, written around the fifth century C.E., and discovered in 1812 on Mount Sinai, the text of 14:26 reads; “Paraclete, the Spirit”; and not “Paraclete, the Holy Spirit.”

Why is it important? It is significant because in biblical language a “spirit,” simply means “a prophet.”

Bible says.
elieve not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world.”[3]. As you can see here a spirit is used synonomous for a prophet. A false spirit is a false prophet, a true spirit is a true prophet.

It is instructive to know that several biblical scholars considered parakletos to be an ‘independent salvific (having the power to save) figure,’ not the Holy Ghost.[4]

The question, then, is: was Jesus’ parakletos, Comforter, a ‘Holy Ghost’ or a person - a prophet - to come after him? To answer the question, we must understand the description of ho parakletos and see if it fits a ghost or a human being.

When we continue reading beyond chapter 14:16 and chapter 16:7, we find that Jesus predicts the specific details of the arrival and identity of the parakletos. Therefore, according to the context of John 14 & 16 we discover the following facts.

1. Jesus said the parakletos is a human being:

John 16:13 “He will speak.”

John 16:7 “…for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you.”

It is impossible that the Comforter be the “Holy Ghost” because the Holy Ghost was present long before Jesus and during his ministry.[5] Genesis 1: 2, 1 Samuel 10: 10, 1 Samuel 11: 6, Isaiah 63: 11, Luke 1: 15, Luke 1: 35, Luke 1: 41, Luke 1: 67, Luke 2: 25, Luke 2: 26, Luke 3:22, John 20: 21-22.

John 16:13 Jesus referred to the paraclete as ‘he’ and not ‘it’ seven times, no other verse in the Bible contains seven masculine pronouns. Therefore, paraclete is a person, not a ghost.

2. Jesus is called a parakletos:

“And if any man sin, we have an advocate (parakletos) with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous.” (1 John 2:1)

Here we see that parakletos is a physical and human intercessor.

3. The Divinity of Jesus a later innovation

Jesus was not accepted as divine until the Council of Nicea, 325 CE, but everyone, except Jews, agree he was a prophet of God, as indicated by the Bible:

Matthew 21:11 “...This is Jesus the prophet of Nazareth of Galilee.”

Luke 24:19 “...Jesus of Nazareth, which was a prophet mighty in deed and word before God and all the people.”

4. Jesus prayed to God for another parakletos:

John 14:16 “And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another parakletos

I will further the new testament prophecies and how they fit Muhammad (pbuh) in the next round



I am not sure if my opponent has even read my arguments last round, as I showed why the prophet could not have been Muhammad. I assume that my opponent has fully dropped the prophecy from Deuteronomy, as he has failed to address any of my arguments. I am completely fine with my opponent drawing out different prophecies each round if he so chooses, as his burden of proof merely requires him to prove Muhammad is mentioned in the Bible, not that he is mentioned in any particular prophecy, I would just like to call attention to the fact that he has so far failed to respond to any of my arguments, and it would be rather nice if he could.

My opponent did not specify in the beginning which edition of the bible we ought to use, and since I did I will use the Biblia Sacra Vulgata (John 14:16)

"(16) et ego rogabo Patrem, et alium Paraclitum dabit vobis, ut maneat vobiscum in aeternum"

First off, the prophecy of Jesus is never linked to the Deuteronomical prophecy by my opponent, so I do not see how my opponent can make the claim he does. Obviously Jesus was not prophesying himself, that does not preclude that prophecy relating to him.

My opponent has made a very novel argument regarding the Bible and these "ancient manuscripts". However, I remain unimpressed (and also a tad suspicious that he is copying/pasting his arguments from some other source). For now, I will accept his dubious claims (although there exist manuscripts that do say "Holy Spirit" that were written before the one my opponent uses to make these claims), and move onward to the rest of his arguments.

1.Jesus said the parakletos is a human being

No he didn't. I'm not sure exactly what part of John 16:13 my opponent is quoting, but it clearly says "He will speak", not "He will be a human being". That is like saying because in the Old Testament it was said that God spoke to Moses, God must be a human being.

Even if the Holy Spirit was present before Jesus and his ministry, that does not mean that it cannot be the Holy Spirit. It merely means the Holy Spirit will only come if Jesus leaves. All that aside, this does not mean it is Muhammad.

The Holy Spirit is also referred to with the masculine pronoun in other Biblical passages. I refer readers to Hebrews 10:15 as well as Romans 8:26.

2.Jesus is called a parakletos

I'm sure that there must be some sort of fallacy here. Just because Jesus is described as a parakletos does not necessitate that parakletoses (parakletosi? I don't know Greek) be physical and human. Also, Jesus was not human.

3.The Divinity of Jesus a later innovation

It could have been true even if it was not accepted for some time. I will not spend a great deal of time handling this because even if my opponent proves it true it does absolutely nothing for affirming the resolution.

4.Jesus prayed to God for another parakletos

Yes. My opponent has not provided any connection between this and the resolution. I concede that Jesus prayed to God for another parakletos. I assert that it was the Holy Spirit.

Let me throw out just a few counter-contentions here...

A. In aeternum

Muhammad died. In order for something to "ut maneat vobiscum in aeternum", it would have to be something that never ends. It makes more sense for this to be the Holy Spirit, because no human has ever lived forever. Regardless, this is obviously not Muhammad, who died.

B. Spirits dwell

Spirits dwell in people (1 John 4:4, read 1 John 4:3 for context). People do not dwell in people. Muhammad was a person. Muhammad could not have dwelt in another person. Muhammad was not a spirit. The Holy Spirit could have dwelt in people.

Muhammad was clearly not mentioned in either the Old or the New Testaments. I remind everyone that the resolution is "Muhammad is mentioned in the Bible". Therefore, I need not undertake any defense of to whom the prophecies do refer, as long as I demonstrate they do not refer to Muhammad. I note that my opponent has made no argument of substance in this round affirming the resolution. Recall that even in the unlikely case my opponent shows Christian theology false, he still does not uphold the resolution.
Debate Round No. 3


AskMeAboutIslam forfeited this round.


Regrettably, my opponent has forfeited.

It would be exceptionally poor conduct to introduce additional arguments in Round 5, therefore my opponent should limit himself to defending arguments he already has made.

Extend all my counter-arguments.
Debate Round No. 4


AskMeAboutIslam forfeited this round.


Vote Con.
Debate Round No. 5
1 comment has been posted on this debate.
Posted by AlwaysMoreThanYou 4 years ago
I misspelled "word" as "world" in the third paragraph of my second argument. Forgive me.
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