Muhammad was not mentioned in the bible.
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How true is this really. I hope I will find an opponent to discuss this with me. I am new to this site and this is my first debate ☺
I do not mean to offend anyone but merely seek a debate to practice and learn a few things.
Deuteronomy 33:1-2 speaks of Moses, Jesus and Muhammad as messengers of God. It says that God (or His revelation) will come from Sinai (Moses), rise from Seir (most likely the village of Sa'ir near Jerusalem, i.e. Jesus), and shining forth from Paran. Genesis 21:21 describes Paran (i.e. Arabia, specifically Mecca) as the place where Ishmael settled. The descendant of Ishmael is none other than Muhammad. Psalms 84:4-6 mentions the Pilgrims passing through Ba'ca, also known as the city of Mecca.
Isaiah 42:1-13 sates that God's elect and messenger will bring down a law to be awaited in the isles and who "shall not fail nor be discouraged till he have set judgement on earth." Verse 11, connects that awaited one with the descendants of Ke'dar. Is Ke'dar mentioned in the bloodline of Jesus? No, according to Genesis 25:13, he is the second son of Ishmael and the ancestor of the prophet Muhammad.
"There are other references to his blood line"
This is completely unfactual, unscriptual and untrue. There exists no biblical references to the blood line of Muhammad. There aren't EVEN secular sources of muhammad's supposed decendency from Ishmael! THIS IS PURE MYTH
Deuteronomy 18:18 "I will raise up for them. A prophet like you from among their brothers/brethren...."
Brethren/brothers is NOT talking about the arabs but rather amongst the Israelites themselves! Every Israelites is from a tribe of Israel. In other word every Israelite is a descendant of Jacob through one of his 12 sons who were evidently BROTHERS. It is more appropriate to think "brethren" is referring to their (israelites) immediate brothers, FELLOW ISRAELITES . It is noted that ALL prophets were Jews (Israelites). The jews in Deuteronomy 18:18 cried to God for a future prophet who as seen in later scriptures would be KING OF ISRAEL. This prophecy thus does not apply to muhammad for he was not nor ever claimed to be King of Israel. This prophecy as seen in the gospels referred to Jesus "unto to him ye shall hearken" agrees with Mathew 17:50, Mark 9:2 and luke 9:35 which all state this. Compare what God says in these Gospel passages with Deuteronomy 18:18. It is Irrefutable that Deut 18:18 is talking about Jesus.
Jesus said himself, "if you believed moses you would me for he WROTE about me" (john 5:46)
We know Moses wrote exclusively about one future prophet that was promised to Israel. This means as per the words of Jesus, the prophet like Moses in Deut 18:18 was Jesus as seen in the New Testament of the bible and not Muhammad.
The prophet in Deuteronomy 18 was to go to Israel and teach the Israelites but as seen in Surah 7:63 of Quran, it says muhammad was sent to the Arabs not Israelites so this already rules muhammad out of being the prophet of Deut 18:18.
Deut 33:1-2 speaks of Paran indeed but paran
Would then have to be Mecca for that is where muhammad received his revelation. However Paran was a desert wilderness on the way to Beersheba in SOuth Israel. Paran is bound by the west of Palestine and Etham and the east of the valley of Arabah. Now since Paran is not mecca and only touches the boarder of East Arabah(arabia) which means Paran is not Mecca which is in SOUTH ARABIA. Paran is actually 1000km from Mecca.
Consequently Deut:33:1-2 is not speaking about Muhammad's revelation because he received it in Mecca not Paran which are two different places.
Psalm 84:4-6 mentions the pilgrimage to Jerusalem through the valley of Baca. Now if Baca is Mecca then why would Israelites who are making a pilgrimage the capital of Israel,Jerusalem, take a HUGE detour to mecca in Arabia???? There is no sense in that AT ALL! The valley of Baca was a valley that Israelites walked through on pilgrimage to Jerusalem. The valley was IN Jerusalem.
Muhammad is NOT a descendant of Ishmael.
There is no historical evidence for this claim at all!
Before the time of muhammad the arabs believed they descended from Qahthan (encyclopedia of Islam). Muslim scholars today even admit this.
Only a small untracable portion of arabs are truly descended from Ishmael.
As seen in the Bible, the Ishmaelites inter-married with a small group of northern Arabians who resided towards the Kingdom of Assyria. Ishmaelites were actually referenced as a distinct tribe apart from the arabs the Assyrian records. Ishmaelites as seen in Judges 8:22-24 are called Medianites as they eventually inter-married with the Medianites. Bear in mind that the Arabs were also around in this period.
Arabia was already populated with people when Ishmael and Abraham were alive. The Arabs according to the Bible are the descendants of Cush and Shem.
If all the arabs(including muhammad) descended from Ishmael as the Quran teaches then where did all the regional arabs of the time go? If arabia was unpopulated before Ishmael then who built Mecca????
It is an accepted scholarly fact that the arabs existed before,during and after Ishmael lived. Thus if the arabs (excluding the group of northen arabs that mixed with the Ishmaelites) descended from Cush and Shem then Muhammad and the rest of the arabs are not descendants of Ishmael. Bear in mind what further discredits Muhammad's decendency from Ishmael is that Muhammad was from Southern Arabia!
Muhammad is not mentioned in the bible in any way as the Quran and muslims teach!
*encyclopedia of silam
Original_Dapper forfeited this round.
Original_Dapper forfeited this round.
1 votes has been placed for this debate.
Vote Placed by Renascor 4 years ago
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