Pre marital sex is not a sin
Debate Rounds (4)
First round acceptance
Accepted. Please provide the definition of sin at the beginning of your second round. I am arguing that premarital sex, according to the Bible, is a sin. This is not to say that it cannot be forgiven.
First, there are no Scriptures saying that premarital sex is a sin.
Exodus 22:16 - 17, "If a man seduces a virgin who is not engaged, and lies with her, he must pay the bride-price for her, and she will be his wife. If her father absolutely refuses to give her to him, he shall pay money equal to the bride-price for virgins."
In ancient cultures, the issue centered around the dowry price, not pre-marital sex.
"If a man finds a girl who is a virgin, who is not engaged, and seizes her and lies with her and they are discovered, then the man who lay with her shall give to the girl"s father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall become his wife because he has violated her; he cannot divorce her all his days."
Once again, it's obvious that if they must pay a dowry that premarital sex cannot be a sin.
The 10 commandments are silent on the issue. Jesus also never cites one verse which outright says it's a sin.
These verses are more than enough to show that pre-marital sex is not a sin.
Thank you for defining sin.
Many passages in the Bible indictate that premarital sex, also known as fornication, is a sin.
Marriage should be honored by all, and the marriage bed kept pure, for God will judge the adulterer and all the sexually immoral. (NIV Hebrews 13:4) Clearly, this is a judgement of all those who have sexually intercourse outside of marriage.
Furthermore: "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God." (1 Corinthians 6:9-10). Clearly, this passage shows that fornication, among other things, is sinful.
Jesus and the 10 Commandments are silent on many issues, this does not mean they are sinful/not sinful.
"4 Marriage is honorable among all, and the bed undefiled; but fornicators [pornos] and adulterers God will judge."
Pornos is a Greek word for prostitute (1). It doesn't imply that pre-marital sex isn't sinful.
1 Corinthians 6:9-10
"9 Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral [pornos], nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality, 10 nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God."
Once again, this doesn't show pre-marital sex is a sin, just that prostitution and having sex with multiple partners at once is a sin.
But under the laws of scripture, if they are followed fully, is not the only way to have sex with multiple partners to do so outside of a marriage?
Furthermore, sexual immorality is sinful in the Bible. 1 Corinthians 7:2---"But because of the temptation to sexual immorality, each man should have his own wife and each woman her own husband" (ESV). Clearly, pre-marital sex is considered a sexual immorality. (http://www.gotquestions.org...)
Finally, "pornos" can also be translated as "a fornicator." A fornicator is someone who has sex outside of marriage. (http://biblehub.com...).
Not really, fornication is the act of having sex with multiple partners other than your spouse. A whore would be a great example of a fornicator. You can have pre-marital sex, but once you have it with that person, you have to commit to them for the rest of your life unless the relationship is completely dissolved.
Porneia according to a Bible dictionary is defined as fornication being illicit sexual intercourse (1). Fornication is defined as "..an unconditional repudiation of all extra-marital and unnatural intercourse" (2). Pre-marital sex obviously doesn't fit in these categories.
Lets examine the full context of 1 Cor. 7:1-9
"It is good for a man not to touch a woman. 2 Nevertheless, because of sexual immorality, let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband. 3 Let the husband render to his wife the affection due her, and likewise also the wife to her husband. 4 The wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does. And likewise the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does. 5 Do not deprive one another except with consent for a time, that you may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again so that Satan does not tempt you because of your lack of self-control. 6 But I say this as a concession, not as a commandment. 7 For I wish that all men were even as I myself. But each one has his own gift from God, one in this manner and another in that. 8 But I say to the unmarried and to the widows: It is good for them if they remain even as I am; 9 but if they cannot exercise self-control, let them marry. For it is better to marry than to burn with passion."
Paul is saying that it's good not to have sex with a woman, but if you are going to commit fornication, you should commit to the other person.
Alright, if you can answer this one question consistent with biblical theology, you win the debate and plus, i will change my views:
There was essentially no legalized marriage in the garden of Eden between Adam and Eve, so biblically, is legal marriage always necessary for a committed relationship?
1. [W. E. Vine, Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words]
2. [Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, Vol. 6, pg. 590]
Fornication is always premarital sex.
Fornicate: (Of two people not married to each other) have sexual intercourse. (http://www.oxforddictionaries.com...)
Premarital: Occurring or existing before marriage (http://www.oxforddictionaries.com...)
The definition of premarital makes no assumption or assertion about whether or not the people involved are going to get married; just that what they are doing exists before any marriage bond.
"You can have pre-marital sex, but once you have it with that person, you have to commit to them for the rest of your life unless the relationship is completely dissolved"
Premarital sex is considered a sexual immorality, making it a sin in regards to the Bible.
Technically, fornication would be illicit sexual intercourse in regards to the Bible because it breaks Old Testament law.
What Paul is really saying is that they should marry rather than "burn with passion." He is not permitting the actions, just saying that people should get married before they have sex.
Considering that the original sin in the Garden of Eden was disobeying God, and having sex with someone before getting married violates one of God's laws, marriage appears to be legally necessary if two people want to have sex without sinning. That being said, it appears the god and Mary had a very good (sexual) relationship according to the Bible, and they were not married. Is a marriage necessary for a healthy relationship in the Bible: not necessarily. Is marriage necessary to have a lawful sex life: absolutely.
1 votes has been placed for this debate.
Vote Placed by bladerunner060 2 years ago
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Reasons for voting decision: Pro's arguments on the translations were not compelling, particularly on the definition of "fornicate". In contrast, Con gave pretty solid arguments for why, in a biblical context, premarital sex is a sin. Arguments to Con. As always, happy to clarify this RFD.
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