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Statistical discrepancy in GDP

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3/13/2016 6:20:48 PM
Posted: 2 years ago

I recently noticed that only Ireland, between EU countries, has statistical discrepancy in GDP different from zero in all three methods of calculation (production, expenditure and income) for the years 2006-2015. United Kingdom has it only for years 2014 and 2015, while most of the countries always have zero statistical discrepancy. I was wondering how is that possible for a country to has zero statistical discrepancy every year in all three methods of calculation of GDP?