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Hungry for knowledge

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11/29/2012 7:24:42 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
I've been listening to collegiate lectures on nichomachean ethics, and the teacher said that Aristotle's work is virtue ethics. I agree with this, and he said that virtue is like the middle path, a "just right," if you will. He then said near the end of the lecture that if someone tends to be vicious then the "just right" will be short of true virtue. My question is, would Aristotle (or virtue ethics) constitute such a man as virtuous, or vicious ?