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4/4/2014 9:53:13 AM
Posted: 2 years ago
It's a joke.
"What can be asserted without evidence can be dismissed without evidence."
However, where is the evidence for this statement? What reasons do we have to believe this? It seems self-defeating.
It also seems as if it pushes us into the regress problem in epistemology.
So we can safely assume that some propositions can be asserted without evidence. This isn't self-defeating at all, thus the contradiction of Hitchen's razor is more favorable.
"Delete your fvcking sig" -1hard
"primal man had the habit, when he came into contact with fire, of satisfying the infantile desire connected with it, by putting it out with a stream of his urine... Putting out the fire by micturating was therefore a kind of sexual act with a male, an enjoyment of sexual potency in a homosexual competition."