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Defining Marriage based on Biblical principle

Bannanawamajama
Posts: 125
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6/14/2014 1:13:08 PM
Posted: 2 years ago
For those who do not support Gay Marriage, there are a variety of reasons offered, some of which are more valid than others. The one I am asking about here specifically is that marriage is defined in the Bible as the union between one man and one woman.

My question is this, why are we using the biblical definition? While Christians are free to use the biblical ceremony if they wish, doesn't this sort of restrict marriage to just certain sects of Christians?

Some Christian churches seem ok with gay marriage, under the idea that the main quote against homosexuality comes from Leviticus, which contains lots of "laws" Christians no longer had to follow after the New Testament.

What about atheists? Do their marriages not count because the Bible critiques them? Or what about my parents? If they had a hindu wedding in India, am I a bastard now?

I still feel that an individual church should have the right to deny a gay couple a wedding if that's their choice, but making a legal definition based on a specific religious text seems too exlcusionary.
Hematite12
Posts: 400
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6/15/2014 6:54:10 PM
Posted: 2 years ago
At 6/14/2014 1:13:08 PM, Bannanawamajama wrote:
For those who do not support Gay Marriage, there are a variety of reasons offered, some of which are more valid than others. The one I am asking about here specifically is that marriage is defined in the Bible as the union between one man and one woman.

My question is this, why are we using the biblical definition? While Christians are free to use the biblical ceremony if they wish, doesn't this sort of restrict marriage to just certain sects of Christians?

Some Christian churches seem ok with gay marriage, under the idea that the main quote against homosexuality comes from Leviticus, which contains lots of "laws" Christians no longer had to follow after the New Testament.

What about atheists? Do their marriages not count because the Bible critiques them? Or what about my parents? If they had a hindu wedding in India, am I a bastard now?

I still feel that an individual church should have the right to deny a gay couple a wedding if that's their choice, but making a legal definition based on a specific religious text seems too exlcusionary.

I 100% agree.
JulietCapulet
Posts: 1
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6/17/2014 3:52:51 PM
Posted: 2 years ago
The question to be asked in this scenario is not why marriage is based on Christian values, but why there is marriage in the first place. If, for the sake of the argument, marriage was NOT defined by Christian values, what would its purpose be? Marriage would unify two adults, any two adults, but for what purpose? Why would it be incorrect to simply live together and never marry, if it is correct that there is no God to condemn this? It would not be incorrect, and marriage would be, therefore, unnecessary. However, marriage IS defined by biblical principles, since marriage is the ceremony in which God accepts a man and a woman as a couple. This would imply that marriage MUST be conducted according to its definition (biblical principles) or it is not marriage; a gay/lesbian "marriage" is not accepted by God, so it is not a marriage, according to the definition of marriage, but a straight marriage is a marriage by the same definition.
Bannanawamajama
Posts: 125
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6/18/2014 5:35:23 PM
Posted: 2 years ago
At 6/17/2014 3:52:51 PM, JulietCapulet wrote:
The question to be asked in this scenario is not why marriage is based on Christian values, but why there is marriage in the first place. If, for the sake of the argument, marriage was NOT defined by Christian values, what would its purpose be? Marriage would unify two adults, any two adults, but for what purpose? Why would it be incorrect to simply live together and never marry, if it is correct that there is no God to condemn this? It would not be incorrect, and marriage would be, therefore, unnecessary. However, marriage IS defined by biblical principles, since marriage is the ceremony in which God accepts a man and a woman as a couple. This would imply that marriage MUST be conducted according to its definition (biblical principles) or it is not marriage; a gay/lesbian "marriage" is not accepted by God, so it is not a marriage, according to the definition of marriage, but a straight marriage is a marriage by the same definition.

I disagree that that is the question to be asked, because it doesn't really answer what I was asking, which is: Why are we using the CHRISTIAN definition for marriage, the one in the bible, when there are other cultures and religions that also have marriages? Your statement implies that not only are gays and lesbians prohibited from marriage, but anyone who goes against the Christian God, which is a lot of people in the world.