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Matthew 12:40

rstrats
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10/24/2013 8:43:36 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone (who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" means the tomb) knows of any writing that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?
annanicole
Posts: 19,788
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10/24/2013 9:14:34 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
What are you calling the "sixth day"? Friday? As in 'Jesus was crucified on a Friday afternoon, then resurrected on Sunday'?
Madcornishbiker: "No, I don't need a dictionary, I know how scripture uses words and that is all I need to now."
AndersonHunter
Posts: 47
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10/24/2013 9:17:00 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
Respectfully, I must ask if any Jew, Christian or Muslim can offer any proof at all that their "holy books" are anything more than Middle Eastern folk lures that were imagined, transcribed and propagated by fearful, primitive cultures in order to define what they did not know and to garner authority over peoples and territories?
annanicole
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10/25/2013 12:27:02 AM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/24/2013 9:17:00 PM, AndersonHunter wrote:
Respectfully, I must ask if any Jew, Christian or Muslim can offer any proof at all that their "holy books" are anything more than Middle Eastern folk lures that were imagined, transcribed and propagated by fearful, primitive cultures in order to define what they did not know and to garner authority over peoples and territories?

Have you read the Campbell-Owen debate? Though it is an old debate, the fundamental beliefs of each system are presented there, and I believe you will find those beliefs and the reasoning behind them have not changed much. The question that you ask has already been answered.
Madcornishbiker: "No, I don't need a dictionary, I know how scripture uses words and that is all I need to now."
Composer
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10/25/2013 12:58:49 AM
Posted: 3 years ago
The total legitimate evidence even a single word in ANY acclaimed ' holy-text ' literally came from was given or inspired by ANY literal Supernatural being remains a constant ZERO!
rstrats
Posts: 79
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10/25/2013 5:33:02 AM
Posted: 3 years ago
annanicole,

re: "What are you calling the 'sixth day'? Friday?"

Yes. that is what US calendars label the sixth day of the week. However, much of Europe and other parts of the world refer to the sixth day of the week as Saturday.

Do you know of any writing as asked for in the OP?
Naysayer
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10/25/2013 6:44:23 AM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/24/2013 8:43:36 PM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone (who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" means the tomb) knows of any writing that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?

The gospels taken as a whole are very clear on the day Jesus died and it wasn't Friday night. There was a gospel tract out there that went through it called "When Was Christ Crucified?" or something along those lines.

It follows exactly the pattern of the passover, including the separating out and the annointing of the lamb which happens on 10 Nisan comparing to Jesus getting annointed in Mark 14.

It takes a lot of leg work, but it's in there. I can't remember even half the details, I'm going to have to go back over it, but I'd be glad to lay it all out.

The timing ends up that it's likely Jesus rose on Saturday evening (approximately around 6 o'clock) not Sunday morning and He did stay exactly three days and three nights in the earth without the slightest bit of exaggeration according to the record.
annanicole
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10/25/2013 7:06:54 AM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/25/2013 5:33:02 AM, rstrats wrote:
annanicole,

re: "What are you calling the 'sixth day'? Friday?"

Yes. that is what US calendars label the sixth day of the week. However, much of Europe and other parts of the world refer to the sixth day of the week as Saturday.

Do you know of any writing as asked for in the OP?

No, I've heard sermons on it - in fact, part of a lesson I heard maybe two months ago mentioned it. However, I've never had occasion to really study it in detail. I'm sure that contemporary Greek/Hebrew writings exist that utilize many of the same wordings, but I am unaware of any information concerning them.
Madcornishbiker: "No, I don't need a dictionary, I know how scripture uses words and that is all I need to now."
AndersonHunter
Posts: 47
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10/25/2013 7:08:52 AM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/25/2013 12:27:02 AM, annanicole wrote:
At 10/24/2013 9:17:00 PM, AndersonHunter wrote:
Respectfully, I must ask if any Jew, Christian or Muslim can offer any proof at all that their "holy books" are anything more than Middle Eastern folk lures that were imagined, transcribed and propagated by fearful, primitive cultures in order to define what they did not know and to garner authority over peoples and territories?

Have you read the Campbell-Owen debate? Though it is an old debate, the fundamental beliefs of each system are presented there, and I believe you will find those beliefs and the reasoning behind them have not changed much. The question that you ask has already been answered.

Yes, I have examined it many times over the years. While it is a fine exercise in critical thinking skills and examination, it fails at every turn to prove, via evidence, that a God does exist or that any truth claims concerning religious assertions, regardless of which sect, are valid and more likely to be true. When you assert that "the question has already been answered", that is dishonest on your part. It may have been answered in the minds of those willing to accept the premises and follow the conclusions, but it comes nowhere close to providing anything resembling truth values. You are free to claim it answers the question based on your acceptance of the answers it offers, however, the honest skeptic can find numerous failings with it.
rstrats
Posts: 79
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10/25/2013 7:25:30 AM
Posted: 3 years ago
Naysayer,

re: "The gospels taken as a whole are very clear on the day Jesus died and it wasn't Friday night."

Actually, it wasn't on any night because scripture says that it was around 3pm in the afternoon. But that's an issue for another topic. For the purpose of this one I'm really only interested in what is requested in the OP.
Naysayer
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10/25/2013 7:31:19 AM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/25/2013 7:25:30 AM, rstrats wrote:
Naysayer,

re: "The gospels taken as a whole are very clear on the day Jesus died and it wasn't Friday night."

Actually, it wasn't on any night because scripture says that it was around 3pm in the afternoon. But that's an issue for another topic. For the purpose of this one I'm really only interested in what is requested in the OP.

I understand. The purpose appearing to be to equivocate the statement, I figured it made sense to point out that it's unnecesary.

He died at 3. He was placed in the heart of the earth around 6.
rstrats
Posts: 79
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10/25/2013 8:54:25 AM
Posted: 3 years ago
Naysayer,

re: "The purpose appearing to be to equivocate the statement,"

Where have I been deceiving or misleading? And to what statement are you referring?

re: "I figured it made sense to point out that it's unnecesary."

To what is "it's" referring?
Naysayer
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10/25/2013 9:01:31 AM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/25/2013 8:54:25 AM, rstrats wrote:
Naysayer,

re: "The purpose appearing to be to equivocate the statement,"

Where have I been deceiving or misleading? And to what statement are you referring?




re: "I figured it made sense to point out that it's unnecesary."

To what is "it's" referring?

The only useful purpose of the information on whether they count partial days as a day in the context of the passage is to say that while Jesus wasn't really in the grave for three days and three nights, He "kinda" was in the ground for three days and three nights.

I didn't really mean to imply that you were attempting to deceive, just that people attempt to come to terms with the statement by equivocating its meaning, which is completely unnecessary.
MadCornishBiker
Posts: 23,302
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10/25/2013 2:00:05 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/24/2013 8:43:36 PM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone (who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" means the tomb) knows of any writing that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?

I can see what you are saying because in fact though Jesus said he would be in the grave 3 days and 3 nights he was in fact no in there for 3 nights, and only parts of 3 days.

However Jesus often used hyperbole in his teaching and that was probably an instance of just such hyperbole. The period Jonah spent in the belly of the big fish was used as the only sign Jesus was prepared to give, purely as a sign, and with no other purpose.
MadCornishBiker
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10/25/2013 2:11:35 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/24/2013 9:17:00 PM, AndersonHunter wrote:
Respectfully, I must ask if any Jew, Christian or Muslim can offer any proof at all that their "holy books" are anything more than Middle Eastern folk lures that were imagined, transcribed and propagated by fearful, primitive cultures in order to define what they did not know and to garner authority over peoples and territories?

There is much proof of just what you ask in the majority of major museums around the world.

The Cyrus cylinder in the British Museum, for instance, confirms the accuracy of the prophecy in Isaiah concerning the capture of Babylon by Cyrus.

In fact any who deny the accuracy of the bible are ignoring, or simply refusing to accept, the masses of evidence that prove it, with more being found regularly.

The simple truth is that the bible is unusually accurate history, in that it tells the bad along with the good, unlike much of mankind's histories which tend to hide anything that looks bad on the country the writer belongs to.

For instance, how many British histories of the Boer War ever give much attention to the fact that n that war the British invented the Concentration Camp in which more women and children died than there were soldiers on both side killed in combat.

No, the bible tells us what went wrong and why, all the way through, withholding nothing in case it be twisted to be used against the one who inspired it, and of course much of it is twisted in just such ways. It also tells us what is being done about what went wrong in order to put it right once and for all.

The bible has proved accurate in it's history, and even in what prophecy was due to be fulfilled before this time. No other book can make and substantiate such claims.
MadCornishBiker
Posts: 23,302
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10/25/2013 2:13:55 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/25/2013 12:58:49 AM, Composer wrote:
The total legitimate evidence even a single word in ANY acclaimed ' holy-text ' literally came from was given or inspired by ANY literal Supernatural being remains a constant ZERO!

You have just shown a typical example of one who deliberately chooses to ignore all the evidence purely because it doesn't suit him to recognise it.

However, the truth remains the truth, whether you like it or not, and it is obvious to all that you do not.
MadCornishBiker
Posts: 23,302
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10/25/2013 2:15:00 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/25/2013 5:33:02 AM, rstrats wrote:
annanicole,

re: "What are you calling the 'sixth day'? Friday?"

Yes. that is what US calendars label the sixth day of the week. However, much of Europe and other parts of the world refer to the sixth day of the week as Saturday.

Do you know of any writing as asked for in the OP?

I knew some calendars still worked that way I did not know the majority of US ones did, thank you for that information.
MadCornishBiker
Posts: 23,302
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10/25/2013 2:18:51 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/25/2013 6:44:23 AM, Naysayer wrote:
At 10/24/2013 8:43:36 PM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone (who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" means the tomb) knows of any writing that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?

The gospels taken as a whole are very clear on the day Jesus died and it wasn't Friday night. There was a gospel tract out there that went through it called "When Was Christ Crucified?" or something along those lines.

It follows exactly the pattern of the passover, including the separating out and the annointing of the lamb which happens on 10 Nisan comparing to Jesus getting annointed in Mark 14.

It takes a lot of leg work, but it's in there. I can't remember even half the details, I'm going to have to go back over it, but I'd be glad to lay it all out.

The timing ends up that it's likely Jesus rose on Saturday evening (approximately around 6 o'clock) not Sunday morning and He did stay exactly three days and three nights in the earth without the slightest bit of exaggeration according to the record.

No it was Friday afternoon because the Sabbath started at sundown on the Friday, therefore. They would not have attempted to bury Jesus after dark on the Saturday even though that would have been legal. Jesus had to be dead and buried before sundown or hang there all until Sunday. Hence his death was quicker than was usual.

As you say, scripture is very clear about that.
Dogknox
Posts: 5,082
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10/25/2013 2:44:36 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/24/2013 8:43:36 PM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone (who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" means the tomb) knows of any writing that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?
Naysayer & rstrats I reply with scriptures....

Right off.... All KNOW the "Sabbath" is Saturday!!!

No work is to be done on the Sabbath...

Mark 15:42
It was Preparation Day (that is, the day before the Sabbath). So as evening approached,
43 Joseph of Arimathea, a prominent member of the Council, who was himself waiting for the kingdom of God, went boldly to Pilate and asked for Jesus" body.


Naysayer & rstrats The Sacrificial unblemished lamb is always slaughtered the day before the Passover Sabbath! ON Preparation day THURSDAY!

The new Passover Lamb of God was SLAIN on Preparation day the Sixth (6) day sundown Wednesday to sundown Thursday!
The Seventh (7) day is Sundown Friday to Sundown Saturday >> This is the Sabbath!
Rose on the first day of the week.. Sundown Saturday to Sundown Sunday!

John 1:29
The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, "Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!

&

Revelation 5:6
Then I saw a Lamb, looking as if it had been slain, standing at the center of the throne, encircled by the four living creatures and the elders. The Lamb had seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven spirits of God sent out into all the earth.
annanicole
Posts: 19,788
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10/25/2013 3:56:01 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/25/2013 7:08:52 AM, AndersonHunter wrote:
At 10/25/2013 12:27:02 AM, annanicole wrote:
At 10/24/2013 9:17:00 PM, AndersonHunter wrote:
Respectfully, I must ask if any Jew, Christian or Muslim can offer any proof at all that their "holy books" are anything more than Middle Eastern folk lures that were imagined, transcribed and propagated by fearful, primitive cultures in order to define what they did not know and to garner authority over peoples and territories?

Have you read the Campbell-Owen debate? Though it is an old debate, the fundamental beliefs of each system are presented there, and I believe you will find those beliefs and the reasoning behind them have not changed much. The question that you ask has already been answered.

Yes, I have examined it many times over the years. While it is a fine exercise in critical thinking skills and examination, it fails at every turn to prove, via evidence, that a God does exist or that any truth claims concerning religious assertions, regardless of which sect, are valid and more likely to be true. When you assert that "the question has already been answered", that is dishonest on your part. It may have been answered in the minds of those willing to accept the premises and follow the conclusions, but it comes nowhere close to providing anything resembling truth values. You are free to claim it answers the question based on your acceptance of the answers it offers, however, the honest skeptic can find numerous failings with it.


I asked because the Campbell-Owen Debate, couple with the Warren-Matson and Warren-Flew debates, are fairly comprehensive. Warren-Flew is even avb on YouTube. When I say "the question has already been answered", I mean that if Robert Owen, Dr. Antony G. N. Flew, and Wallace Matson. could not correctly and accurately deal with certain points, then I do not know who can. I have heard Hitchens and Dawkins, but I do not find their intelligence nor grasp in any way superior to Flew and Matson. Dr. Flew in fact affirmed exactly what he should affirm: "I know that God does not exist."

I surmise that if anyone at the time could prove, philosophically, that God does not exist to the point of saying, "I know that God does not exist", the Dr. Antony G. N. Flew of England could have done it. I do not know what Dr. Flew's position was 25 years later, and I wouldn't misrepresent the recently deceased, but I do know that he came to some sort of deist position at one point. Whether he later renounced it, or renounced part of it, I do not know.

I have yet to see any topic regarding theism/atheism discussed on this board that wasn't better dealt with on both sides by Alexander Campbell and Thomas Warren, and Rob't Owen, Wallace Matson, and Antony Flew. I would not propose that I could do any better than Campbell and Warren, and I seriously doubt if anyone else is going to do better than Owen, Matson, and Flew.
Madcornishbiker: "No, I don't need a dictionary, I know how scripture uses words and that is all I need to now."
Naysayer
Posts: 746
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10/26/2013 5:28:45 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/25/2013 2:18:51 PM, MadCornishBiker wrote:
At 10/25/2013 6:44:23 AM, Naysayer wrote:
At 10/24/2013 8:43:36 PM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone (who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" means the tomb) knows of any writing that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?

The gospels taken as a whole are very clear on the day Jesus died and it wasn't Friday night. There was a gospel tract out there that went through it called "When Was Christ Crucified?" or something along those lines.

It follows exactly the pattern of the passover, including the separating out and the annointing of the lamb which happens on 10 Nisan comparing to Jesus getting annointed in Mark 14.

It takes a lot of leg work, but it's in there. I can't remember even half the details, I'm going to have to go back over it, but I'd be glad to lay it all out.

The timing ends up that it's likely Jesus rose on Saturday evening (approximately around 6 o'clock) not Sunday morning and He did stay exactly three days and three nights in the earth without the slightest bit of exaggeration according to the record.

No it was Friday afternoon because the Sabbath started at sundown on the Friday, therefore. They would not have attempted to bury Jesus after dark on the Saturday even though that would have been legal. Jesus had to be dead and buried before sundown or hang there all until Sunday. Hence his death was quicker than was usual.

As you say, scripture is very clear about that.

I responded here: http://www.debate.org...

It wasn't Friday. It couldn't have been Friday or Jesus was a liar.
Naysayer
Posts: 746
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10/26/2013 5:29:34 PM
Posted: 3 years ago
At 10/25/2013 2:44:36 PM, Dogknox wrote:
At 10/24/2013 8:43:36 PM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone (who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" means the tomb) knows of any writing that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?
Naysayer & rstrats I reply with scriptures....

Right off.... All KNOW the "Sabbath" is Saturday!!!

No work is to be done on the Sabbath...

Mark 15:42
It was Preparation Day (that is, the day before the Sabbath). So as evening approached,
43 Joseph of Arimathea, a prominent member of the Council, who was himself waiting for the kingdom of God, went boldly to Pilate and asked for Jesus" body.


Naysayer & rstrats The Sacrificial unblemished lamb is always slaughtered the day before the Passover Sabbath! ON Preparation day THURSDAY!

The new Passover Lamb of God was SLAIN on Preparation day the Sixth (6) day sundown Wednesday to sundown Thursday!
The Seventh (7) day is Sundown Friday to Sundown Saturday >> This is the Sabbath!
Rose on the first day of the week.. Sundown Saturday to Sundown Sunday!

John 1:29
The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, "Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!

&

Revelation 5:6
Then I saw a Lamb, looking as if it had been slain, standing at the center of the throne, encircled by the four living creatures and the elders. The Lamb had seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven spirits of God sent out into all the earth.

No.

I responded here: http://www.debate.org...
Dogknox
Posts: 5,082
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2/28/2014 1:24:33 PM
Posted: 2 years ago
At 2/27/2014 6:08:54 AM, rstrats wrote:
Since it has again been awhile, perhaps someone new looking in will know of some writing.

I reply: There is NO writings!!!
What you are asking is.. "Does anyone have any proof 2+2= 5, there must be someone out there that can prove 2+2=5?!"
annanicole
Posts: 19,788
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2/28/2014 1:32:27 PM
Posted: 2 years ago
At 2/28/2014 1:24:33 PM, Dogknox wrote:
At 2/27/2014 6:08:54 AM, rstrats wrote:
Since it has again been awhile, perhaps someone new looking in will know of some writing.

I reply: There is NO writings!!!
What you are asking is.. "Does anyone have any proof 2+2= 5, there must be someone out there that can prove 2+2=5?!"

LMAO. A comment from the one who is least likely to know?

The question was: " I wonder if anyone (who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" means the tomb) knows of any writing that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century"
Madcornishbiker: "No, I don't need a dictionary, I know how scripture uses words and that is all I need to now."
Dogknox
Posts: 5,082
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2/28/2014 4:55:04 PM
Posted: 2 years ago
At 2/28/2014 1:32:27 PM, annanicole wrote:
At 2/28/2014 1:24:33 PM, Dogknox wrote:
At 2/27/2014 6:08:54 AM, rstrats wrote:
Since it has again been awhile, perhaps someone new looking in will know of some writing.

I reply: There is NO writings!!!
What you are asking is.. "Does anyone have any proof 2+2= 5, there must be someone out there that can prove 2+2=5?!"

LMAO. A comment from the one who is least likely to know?

The question was: " I wonder if anyone (who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" means the tomb) knows of any writing that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century"

For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA
Not a single Father has ever been cited in favor of the opinion that Jonah is a fancy-tale and no fact-narrative at all. To the Fathers Jonah was a fact and a type of the Messias, just such a one as Christ presented to the Jews. Saints Jerome, Cyril, and Theophilus explain in detail the type-meaning of the facts of the Book of Jonah. St. Cyril even forestalls the objections of the Rationalists of today: Jonah flees his ministry, bewails God's mercy to the Ninivites, and in other ways shows a spirit that ill becomes a Prophet and an historical type of Christ. Cyril admits that in all this Jonah failed and is not a type of Christ, but does not admit that these failures of Jonah prove the story of his doings to have been a mere fiction.

To the Rationalist and to the advanced Protestant Biblical scholar these arguments are of no worth whatsoever. They find error not only in Jewish and Christian tradition but in Christ Himself. They admit that Christ took the story of Jonah as a fact-narrative, and make answer that Christ erred; He was a child of His time and represents to us the ideas and errors of His time. The arguments of those who accept the inerrancy of Christ and deny the historicity of Jonah are not conclusive.

Christ spoke according to the ideas of the people, and had no purpose in telling them that Jonah was really not swallowed by the fish. We ask: Did Christ speak of the Queen of Sheba as a fact? If so, then He spoke of Jonah as a fact " unless there be some proof to the contrary.
Were the book historical in its narrative, certain details would not be omitted, for instance, the place where the Prophet was vomited forth by the sea-monster, the particular sins of which the Ninivites were guilty, the particular kind of calamity by which the city was to be destroyed, the name of the Assyrian king under whom these events took place and who turned to the true God with such marvellous humility and repentance.

We answer, these objections prove that the book is not an historical account done according to later canons of historical criticism; they do not prove that the book is no history at all. The facts narrated are such as suited the purpose of the sacred writer. He told a story of glory unto the God of Israel and of downfall to the gods of Ninive. It is likely that the incidents took place during the period of Assyrian decadence, i.e., the reign of either Asurdanil or Asurnirar (770-745 B.C.). A pest had ravaged the land from 765 till 759 B.C. Internal strife added to the dismay caused by the deadly disease. The king's power was set at naught. Such a king might seem too little known to be mentioned. The Pharaoh of Mosaic times is not deemed to have been a fiction merely because his name is not given.

Jewish tradition assumed that the Prophet Jonah was the author of the book bearing his name, and the same has been generally maintained by the Christian writers who defend the historical character of the narrative. But it may be remarked that nowhere does the book itself claim to have been written by the Prophet (who is supposed to have lived in the eighth century B.C.), and most modern scholars, for various reasons, assign the date of the composition to a much later epoch, probably the fifth century B.C. As in the case of other Old Testament personages, many legends, mostly fantastic and devoid of critical value, grew up around the name Jonah. They may be found in the "Jewish Encyclopedia".
rstrats
Posts: 79
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2/28/2014 5:04:40 PM
Posted: 2 years ago
Dogknox,

re: "What you are asking is.. 'Does anyone have any proof 2+2= 5, there must be someone out there that can prove 2+2=5?!'"

But that is what the 6th day crucixion folks are asserting - that the '3 nights' of Matthew 12:40 actually means 2 nights.
annanicole
Posts: 19,788
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3/1/2014 12:15:57 AM
Posted: 2 years ago
At 2/28/2014 5:04:40 PM, rstrats wrote:
Dogknox,

re: "What you are asking is.. 'Does anyone have any proof 2+2= 5, there must be someone out there that can prove 2+2=5?!'"

But that is what the 6th day crucixion folks are asserting - that the '3 nights' of Matthew 12:40 actually means 2 nights.

What exactly are you asking? I'll honestly try to find it. Dogknox doesn't know. You can bet on that. Are you asking for Jewish literature that gives examples similar to "three days and three nights" not being literally three full days and three full nights?
Madcornishbiker: "No, I don't need a dictionary, I know how scripture uses words and that is all I need to now."
rstrats
Posts: 79
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3/1/2014 7:31:46 AM
Posted: 2 years ago
annanicole,

re: "Are you asking for Jewish literature that gives examples similar to 'three days and three nights' not being literally three full days and three full nights?"

Essentially, yes. I'm looking for any writing from the first century or before which shows a phrase stating a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights when the actual elapsed period couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights.