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The Voice of Reason and Faith Issue 4
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4/25/2014 12:26:26 AM
Posted: 2 years ago
Hello! Sorry for the lateness as my new job's been taking up quite a bit of time. I may not be posting every week.
The Morality of the Bible Part 2 of 4: Are the Laws in the Old Testament irrelevant?
This won't be very long as it seems like a simple issue to resolve. As I stated last time, those laws were only given to the Israelites for that time, and weren't given to Christians, as that was quite some time before Christ was born.
Do we have that out of the way? If we don't, reply to my post.
Now, a user quoted a verse in 2 Timothy. That verse saying all scripture was profitable for doctrine and reproof and instruction. And he said that the laws would have to apply to us today then. My answer to that is simple.
So let's remember this. The Bible is not just religious text; it is also largely composed of historical documents, poetry, etc. And taking things into consideration, Leviticus, Deuteronomy, and Numbers are composed of laws solely for the Israelites. So I don't believe it is scripture in that sense. If you look into all of the later books, you'll find all kinds of things that are said to always please God. That would be considered holy scripture.
I'm going to get a lot of flak for this post, but this is my opinion. And if I do get flak, I'll try to learn from it.
Next time I'll cover the morality of God himself. That ought to be interesting.
zmikecuber and I debate the Modal Ontological Argument
"YOU ARE A TOTAL MORON!!! LOL!!!- invisibledeity
"I have shown incredible restraint in the face of unrelenting stupidity."-Izbo10
"Oh my God, WHO THE HELL CARES?!"-Peter Griffin
"Let me put this in Spanish for you: NO!!"-Jase Robertson