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Modern day "Chrisitans", please explain.

tstor
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12/4/2015 2:19:30 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 2:05:48 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
Why do modern day "Christians" believe in an "all-loving" god that is not biblical?
"Whoever does not love has not come to know God, because God is love." (1 John 4:8)

That was easy.
"The afternoon came down as imperceptibly as age comes to a happy man. A little gold entered into the sunlight. The bay became bluer and dimpled with shore-wind ripples. Those lonely fishermen who believe that the fish bite at high tide left their rocks, and their places were taken by others, who were convinced that the fish bite at low tide." (John Steinbeck; Tortilla Flat, 1935)
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/4/2015 2:23:57 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 2:19:30 AM, tstor wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:05:48 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
Why do modern day "Christians" believe in an "all-loving" god that is not biblical?
"Whoever does not love has not come to know God, because God is love." (1 John 4:8)

That was easy.

What is love?
tstor
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12/4/2015 2:31:46 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 2:23:57 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:19:30 AM, tstor wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:05:48 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
Why do modern day "Christians" believe in an "all-loving" god that is not biblical?
"Whoever does not love has not come to know God, because God is love." (1 John 4:8)

That was easy.

What is love?
The Greek word used in 1 John 4:8 is agape. I will quote Vine's Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words for clarification regarding agape:

"Love can be known only from the actions it prompts. God's love is seen in the gift of His Son, I John 4:9, 10. But obviously this is not the love of complacency, or affection, that is, it was not drawn out by any excellency in its objects, Rom. 5:8. It was an exercise of the Divine will in deliberate choice, made without assignable cause save that which lies in the nature of God Himself, cp. Deut. 7:7, 8." (1981, Vol. 3, p. 21.)

Ultimately it depends on context. Another word used in the Greek would be philia (think of Philadelphia). However, I have already defined the word used in the verse provided.
"The afternoon came down as imperceptibly as age comes to a happy man. A little gold entered into the sunlight. The bay became bluer and dimpled with shore-wind ripples. Those lonely fishermen who believe that the fish bite at high tide left their rocks, and their places were taken by others, who were convinced that the fish bite at low tide." (John Steinbeck; Tortilla Flat, 1935)
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/4/2015 2:38:59 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 2:31:46 AM, tstor wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:23:57 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:19:30 AM, tstor wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:05:48 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
Why do modern day "Christians" believe in an "all-loving" god that is not biblical?
"Whoever does not love has not come to know God, because God is love." (1 John 4:8)

That was easy.

What is love?
The Greek word used in 1 John 4:8 is agape. I will quote Vine's Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words for clarification regarding agape:

"Love can be known only from the actions it prompts. God's love is seen in the gift of His Son, I John 4:9, 10. But obviously this is not the love of complacency, or affection, that is, it was not drawn out by any excellency in its objects, Rom. 5:8. It was an exercise of the Divine will in deliberate choice, made without assignable cause save that which lies in the nature of God Himself, cp. Deut. 7:7, 8." (1981, Vol. 3, p. 21.)

Ultimately it depends on context. Another word used in the Greek would be philia (think of Philadelphia). However, I have already defined the word used in the verse provided.

Uhh...no. I'm not talking about the Greek or Hebrew Strongs, I'm talking about the Scripture. Love according to Scripture is...

1 John 5:3 For this is the loue of God, that we keepe his commandements, and his commandements are not grieuous.

That is the love of God. Now, if God loves everyone, why would HE say...

Amos 3:1-2

1 Heare this word that the Lord hath spoken against you, O children of Israel, against the whole family, which I brought vp from the land of Egypt, saying;

2 You onely haue I knowen of all the families of the earth: therefore I will punish you for all your iniquities.

It said Israel, not the whole world. So can you explain how your god loves everyone, but the God of the Bible only loves the Israelties? Keep in mind, God does not change (Malachi 3:6).
GrittyWorm
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12/4/2015 2:47:00 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 2:05:48 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
Why do modern day "Christians" believe in an "all-loving" god that is not biblical?

Ever heard of Jesus Christ or the Sermon on the Mount? How about the New Testament. I love when nonchristians try to tell Christians ignorantly about their religion.
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/4/2015 2:57:17 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 2:47:00 AM, GrittyWorm wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:05:48 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
Why do modern day "Christians" believe in an "all-loving" god that is not biblical?

Ever heard of Jesus Christ or the Sermon on the Mount? How about the New Testament. I love when nonchristians try to tell Christians ignorantly about their religion.

Ever heard of the Old and New Testament being for Judah and Israel only?

Jeremiah 31:31 Behold, the dayes come, saith the Lord, that I will make a newe couenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Iudah.

Hebrew 8:8 For finding fault with them, hee saith, Behold, the dayes come (saith the Lord) when I will make a new couenant with the house of Israel, and the house of Iudah.

No where in there did it say THE WHOLE WORLD. It said Israel and Judah.

I love when the modern day fake "Christians" don't know the Bible, yet still open their mouths to teach lies.
tstor
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12/4/2015 2:59:14 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 2:38:59 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

The Greek word used in 1 John 4:8 is agape. I will quote Vine's Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words for clarification regarding agape:

"Love can be known only from the actions it prompts. God's love is seen in the gift of His Son, I John 4:9, 10. But obviously this is not the love of complacency, or affection, that is, it was not drawn out by any excellency in its objects, Rom. 5:8. It was an exercise of the Divine will in deliberate choice, made without assignable cause save that which lies in the nature of God Himself, cp. Deut. 7:7, 8." (1981, Vol. 3, p. 21.)

Ultimately it depends on context. Another word used in the Greek would be philia (think of Philadelphia). However, I have already defined the word used in the verse provided.

Uhh...no. I'm not talking about the Greek or Hebrew Strongs, I'm talking about the Scripture. Love according to Scripture is...
By "strongs," do you mean concordances? They are extremely important to reference if one wants an accurate understanding of the Scriptures. You will notice that the dictionary I referenced makes use of scriptures in the definition.

1 John 5:3 For this is the loue of God, that we keepe his commandements, and his commandements are not grieuous.

That is the love of God. Now, if God loves everyone, why would HE say...
That verse is talking about our love for God, not God's love for us. On that same note, 1 John 4:19 reads:
"We love, because he [God] first loved us."

Amos 3:1-2

1 Heare this word that the Lord hath spoken against you, O children of Israel, against the whole family, which I brought vp from the land of Egypt, saying;

2 You onely haue I knowen of all the families of the earth: therefore I will punish you for all your iniquities.
I prefer the New World Translation, which renders Amos 3:2 as:
"You alone I have known out of all the families of the earth.
That is why I will call you to account for all your errors."

However, how does this contradict a loving God?

It said Israel, not the whole world. So can you explain how your god loves everyone, but the God of the Bible only loves the Israelties? Keep in mind, God does not change (Malachi 3:6).
God does not change in a sense. He also does change in a sense. God will change his attitude when the behavior of people change. For example, look at Jeremiah 26:3:
"Perhaps they will listen and each one will turn back from his evil way, and I will change my mind concerning the calamity that I intend to bring on them because of their evil deeds."

Only his personality and standards of love and justice never change. (Deut. 32:4; 1 Jn. 4:8)
"The afternoon came down as imperceptibly as age comes to a happy man. A little gold entered into the sunlight. The bay became bluer and dimpled with shore-wind ripples. Those lonely fishermen who believe that the fish bite at high tide left their rocks, and their places were taken by others, who were convinced that the fish bite at low tide." (John Steinbeck; Tortilla Flat, 1935)
GrittyWorm
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12/4/2015 3:28:22 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 2:57:17 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:47:00 AM, GrittyWorm wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:05:48 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
Why do modern day "Christians" believe in an "all-loving" god that is not biblical?

Ever heard of Jesus Christ or the Sermon on the Mount? How about the New Testament. I love when nonchristians try to tell Christians ignorantly about their religion.

Ever heard of the Old and New Testament being for Judah and Israel only?

Jeremiah 31:31 Behold, the dayes come, saith the Lord, that I will make a newe couenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Iudah.

Hebrew 8:8 For finding fault with them, hee saith, Behold, the dayes come (saith the Lord) when I will make a new couenant with the house of Israel, and the house of Iudah.

No where in there did it say THE WHOLE WORLD. It said Israel and Judah.

I love when the modern day fake "Christians" don't know the Bible, yet still open their mouths to teach lies.

All of us? Wierd. I didn't realize we were all lumped into one group.

Are you going to elaborate on the "lies" that have you so "pissed off"? Are you going to solely focus on Christianity with your "pissed offness", or do you have a greater concern with Islam which has the punishments for adultery, homosexuality, apostasy, and mocking Muhammed are death? Do you have no "pissed offness" towards Islam which has 30,000 recorded acts of terrorism since 9/11 which is almost ten times more than the rest of the world combined and Islamic immigration in Sweden has caused it to be named the "rape capital of the world" noting 1 in 4 Swedish women has been a victim of a rape? Does it piss you off that there are 800 no go zones in Europe and now one in America where the areas are zoned off as under Sharia Law and police do not police the areas? Or is it easier to focus on Christianity because we won't try to kill you for thinking differently than us?
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/4/2015 5:50:06 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 2:59:14 AM, tstor wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:38:59 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

By "strongs," do you mean concordances? They are extremely important to reference if one wants an accurate understanding of the Scriptures. You will notice that the dictionary I referenced makes use of scriptures in the definition.

Yes I meant concordances, but what I meant was to show me scripture that explains the love of God. Maybe I should have explained myself on that.

That verse is talking about our love for God, not God's love for us. On that same note, 1 John 4:19 reads:
"We love, because he [God] first loved us."

So what you are saying is that you don"t have to show God you love HIM, and HE"LL still love you? I think not.

John 14:21 He that hath my commandements, and keepeth them, hee it is that loueth me: and he that loueth me shall be loued of my Father, and I will loue him, and will manifest my selfe to him.

1 John 2:4 He that saith, I knowe him, and keepeth not his commandements, is a lyer, and the trueth is not in him.

So showing TMH God that you love HIM is you keeping HIS commandments, not saying that you love HIM. If you show HIM you love HIM, HE will show you HIS love. So at this moment, you are not worshiping the God of the Bible because "Christianity" teaches you are now under grace, yet Christians don"t know how the Bible defines grace.

I prefer the New World Translation, which renders Amos 3:2 as:
"You alone I have known out of all the families of the earth.
That is why I will call you to account for all your errors."

I prefer to use the original KJV 1611 with the original wording.

That Scripture is saying the same thing.

However, how does this contradict a loving God?

Umm because it is saying the Children of Israel, not the whole world. Did you read the verse correctly?
Amos 3:1-2
1 Heare this word that the Lord hath spoken against you, O children of Israel, against the whole family, which I brought vp from the land of Egypt, saying;

2 You onely haue I knowen of all the families of the earth: therefore I will punish you for all your iniquities.

The LORD says HE has only known Israel out of all the families or nations of the earth, therefore HE punished us Israelites only and I"m not talking about the fake "white" European Israelites over in Israel today.

Would an all loving God only chose one nation of people to serve HIM? I"m pretty sure you are going to say that HE offered salvation to the Gentiles in the NT, but what Gentiles did HE give salvation to because there are two different Gentiles spoken of in the NT.

God does not change in a sense. He also does change in a sense. God will change his attitude when the behavior of people change. For example, look at Jeremiah 26:3:
"Perhaps they will listen and each one will turn back from his evil way, and I will change my mind concerning the calamity that I intend to bring on them because of their evil deeds."

That is not what I"m talking about. God said HE has only known Israel and if you read through the Bible, HE only talks about Israel. That is why HE says in"

Matthew 15:24 But he answered, and said, I am not sent, but vnto the lost sheepe of the house of Israel.

That didn"t say the whole world, it said Israel, which is a nation of people. And Jeremiah 26:3 is talking about Israel because Israel was the only nation given the Law, which is mentioned in the next verse, Jeremiah 26:4. And again, Israel is not the whole world, it is a nation of people on this earth today.

So again, how can an "all-loving" god only love one nation of people and only send HIS son to die for one nation of people? God does not change, point blank period. The entire Bible is about the Israelites, not the whole world. The NT quotes the OT. When Christ walked the earth what covenant were the Israelites under?

Only his personality and standards of love and justice never change. (Deut. 32:4; 1 Jn. 4:8)

God does not change at all, HE still loves HIS chosen people Israel and Israel only.

Revelation 13:10 Hee that leadeth into captiuitie, shall goe into captiuitie: Hee that killeth with the sword, must be killed with the sword. Here is the patience and the faith of the Saints.

So those that enslaved the Israelites are going into slavery when Christ returns. All nations have enslaved the so called "African-Americans, Latinos and Native Americans" as the prophecy in Deuteronomy 28:15-68 says. Thus, all those nations are going into slavery when Christ returns. Would an "all-loving" God really do such a thing?

Would an "all-loving" god really say that HE hates a nation of people on this earth today.

Romans 9:13 As it is written, Iacob haue I loued, but Esau haue I hated.

Hate is not love. That whole "Christian" saying "hate doesn't always mean hate" is b.s. because if you define the word hate, it clearly tells you what it means. What it is, is that "Christians" want to define the Bible in their own words and quite frankly they make no sense because Scripture always contradicts what they teach and/or say.
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/4/2015 6:25:37 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 3:28:22 AM, GrittyWorm wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:57:17 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

All of us? Wierd. I didn't realize we were all lumped into one group.

Yes, all of you. All "Christians" are the same.

Are you going to elaborate on the "lies" that have you so "pissed off"?

I didn"t know I was pissed off, but ok lol. Can you explain how the Bible is for everyone when Scripture says it is for Judah and Israel (Jer. 31:31; Heb. 8:8)? Judah and Israel is not the whole world, so please, elaborate for us.

Are you going to solely focus on Christianity with your "pissed offness", or do you have a greater concern with Islam which has the punishments for adultery, homosexuality, apostasy, and mocking Muhammed are death?

LOL"Islam is Bible prophecy and the fact that you fear man more than your own god really shows how much faith you have in your god.

2 Esdras 15:28-29
28 Behold an horrible vision, and the appearance thereof from the East.
29 Where the nations of the dragons of Arabia shall come out with many charets, and the multitude of them shalbe caried as the winde vpon earth, that all they which heare them, may feare and tremble.

Islam is the God of Israel"s plan, for the Israelites sake and there is nothing anyone can do to stop them. ISIS is only a distraction from what is really going to happen in the America between the so called "African-Americans, Latinos and Native Americans" and the "whites". It has already begun now, but the atrocities of the so called "African-Americans, Latinos and Native Americans" or Israelites, will continue to increase and the war between Jacob (Israel (African-Americans, Latinos and Native Americans) and Esau ("whites"/Caucasians) will then begin. Funny thing is that America is so busy sticking their nose in what other nations are doing, that they don't even make an effort to stop police brutality against the so called "Negros, Latinos and Native Americans". I wonder why it takes about 10 or 15 police officers to take down one unarmed black man...but I give all praises to TMH and Christ for that because it is Bible prophecy. Only one third of the nation of Israel will be delivered.

Also, if you did not know, Islam is only reciting the Bible, after all, Quran/Koran does mean "to recite" look it up.

Do you have no "pissed offness" towards Islam which has 30,000 recorded acts of terrorism since 9/11 which is almost ten times more than the rest of the world combined and Islamic immigration in Sweden has caused it to be named the "rape capital of the world" noting 1 in 4 Swedish women has been a victim of a rape?

Maybe you have failed to realize that the so called "white" man has killed millions, if not trillions, of people. Maybe you also failed to realize that the so called "white" man was the first one to commit an act of terrorism with planes back in the 1920"s on an "African-American" community in Oklahoma, solely because they didn"t not like the color of my ancestors. Maybe you also failed to realize how many woman and children the so called "white" man has raped and murdered, how many men, woman, and children he hung, burned alive, decapitated, dragged behind a horse with his/her hands tied up or maybe how he tied a so called "negro" to four horse and ripped his/her limbs off his/her body. Yeah, the real terrorists in this world are "whites"" the ones who have the most specialized technology to take out every person on this planet, to find people by using their voice or eyes, the "white" man who has done nothing but kill, rape, steal, etc" to get what he wants. Maybe you failed to realize that "whites" have been committing more acts of terrorism than Islam has"you should really do your research on the true history of "America".

Does it piss you off that there are 800 no go zones in Europe and now one in America where the areas are zoned off as under Sharia Law and police do not police the areas? Or is it easier to focus on Christianity because we won't try to kill you for thinking differently than us?

If you do your research, you will find that Islam today, is the "Christianity" from a couple hundred years ago. See because when the Israelites didn"t believe in "white" man jesus, we were killed, just as ISIS is doing today. ISIS is not a threat to the Israelites, but to the rest of the world they are. The Israelites fear, is our God, the God of the Bible who says"

Psalms 47:2
For the LORD most high is terrible; he is a great King ouer all the earth.
That is who myself and the rest of us Israelites fear, our God.
tstor
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12/4/2015 9:24:55 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 5:50:06 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

By "strongs," do you mean concordances? They are extremely important to reference if one wants an accurate understanding of the Scriptures. You will notice that the dictionary I referenced makes use of scriptures in the definition.

Yes I meant concordances, but what I meant was to show me scripture that explains the love of God. Maybe I should have explained myself on that.

That verse is talking about our love for God, not God's love for us. On that same note, 1 John 4:19 reads:
"We love, because he [God] first loved us."

So what you are saying is that you don"t have to show God you love HIM, and HE"LL still love you? I think not.
I am not saying that at all. Jehovah does "hate." Consider what Solomon said in Ecclesiastes 3:1, 8:
"For everything there is an appointed time, even a time for every affair under the heavens [...] a time to love and a time to hate."

Or what is said in Psalms 11:5:
"Jehovah himself examines the righteous one as well as the wicked one, and anyone loving violence His soul certainly hates."

John 14:21 He that hath my commandements, and keepeth them, hee it is that loueth me: and he that loueth me shall be loued of my Father, and I will loue him, and will manifest my selfe to him.

1 John 2:4 He that saith, I knowe him, and keepeth not his commandements, is a lyer, and the trueth is not in him.

So showing TMH God that you love HIM is you keeping HIS commandments, not saying that you love HIM. If you show HIM you love HIM, HE will show you HIS love. So at this moment, you are not worshiping the God of the Bible because "Christianity" teaches you are now under grace, yet Christians don"t know how the Bible defines grace.
You are not accurately representing my position. Jesus said in Matthew 5:18, 19:
"Truly I say to you that sooner would heaven and earth pass away than for one smallest letter or one stroke of a letter to pass away from the Law until all things take place. Whoever, therefore, breaks one of these least commandments and teaches others to do so will be called least in relation to the Kingdom of the heavens. But whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in relation to the Kingdom of the heavens."

The commandments cannot be ignored, you are correct. A true follower of Christ and worshiper of God will follow the commandments.

I prefer the New World Translation, which renders Amos 3:2 as:
"You alone I have known out of all the families of the earth.
That is why I will call you to account for all your errors."

I prefer to use the original KJV 1611 with the original wording.
Sorry, but that has been proven to be inaccurate in many instances. Modern translations make better use of more accurate manuscripts that did not necessarily exist or become utilized at that time.

That Scripture is saying the same thing.
I am aware.

However, how does this contradict a loving God?

Umm because it is saying the Children of Israel, not the whole world. Did you read the verse correctly?
Amos 3:1-2
1 Heare this word that the Lord hath spoken against you, O children of Israel, against the whole family, which I brought vp from the land of Egypt, saying;

2 You onely haue I knowen of all the families of the earth: therefore I will punish you for all your iniquities.

The LORD says HE has only known Israel out of all the families or nations of the earth, therefore HE punished us Israelites only and I"m not talking about the fake "white" European Israelites over in Israel today.

Would an all loving God only chose one nation of people to serve HIM? I"m pretty sure you are going to say that HE offered salvation to the Gentiles in the NT, but what Gentiles did HE give salvation to because there are two different Gentiles spoken of in the NT.
Without wanting to get too involved in a response due to my limited time, I will prove that God is not merely a tribal Jewish deity. Consider Romans 3:29:
"Or is he the God of the Jews only? Is he not also the God of people of the nations? Yes, also of people of the nations."

Romans 10:13:
"For 'everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.'"

Even David in the Hebrew Scriptures said this in Psalms 24:1:
"To Jehovah belong the earth and everything in it,
The productive land and those dwelling on it."

God does not change in a sense. He also does change in a sense. God will change his attitude when the behavior of people change. For example, look at Jeremiah 26:3:
"Perhaps they will listen and each one will turn back from his evil way, and I will change my mind concerning the calamity that I intend to bring on them because of their evil deeds."

That is not what I"m talking about. God said HE has only known Israel and if you read through the Bible, HE only talks about Israel. That is why HE says in"

Matthew 15:24 But he answered, and said, I am not sent, but vnto the lost sheepe of the house of Israel.

That didn"t say the whole world, it said Israel, which is a nation of people. And Jeremiah 26:3 is talking about Israel because Israel was the only nation given the Law, which is mentioned in the next verse, Jeremiah 26:4. And again, Israel is not the whole world, it is a nation of people on this earth today.
Thank you for proving my point. I was not talking about who Jeremiah 26:3 is in reference to, but what God said in that verse in regards to his "change." You go on to mention that Jesus had a limited ministry, but that does not tell us anything. Rather, let's see what is said in Psalm 72:8:
"He [Christ] will have subjects from sea to sea And from the River to the ends of the earth."

You rightly admit that the "Israel is not the whole world." So what does that tell you?

So again, how can an "all-loving" god only love one nation of people and only send HIS son to die for one nation of people? God does not change, point blank period. The entire Bible is about the Israelites, not the whole world. The NT quotes the OT. When Christ walked the earth what covenant were the Israelites under?
God loves more than one nation, as I have shown through scripture. I have also shown instances of where God can and cannot change.

Only his personality and standards of love and justice never change. (Deut. 32:4; 1 Jn. 4:8)

God does not change at all, HE still loves HIS chosen people Israel and Israel only.
Then you are not reading the same book I am.

Revelation 13:10 Hee that leadeth into captiuitie, shall goe into captiuitie: Hee that killeth with the sword, must be killed with the sword. Here is the patience and the faith of the Saints.

So those that enslaved the Israelites are going into slavery when Christ returns. All nations have enslaved the so called "African-Americans, Latinos and Native Americans" as the prophecy in Deuteronomy 28:15-68 says. Thus, all those nations are going into slavery when Christ returns. Would an "all-loving" God really do such a thing?
Revelation 13:10 has nothing to with what you have stated. As well, Deuteronomy 28 has no mentioning of all nations being enslaved.

Would an "all-loving" god really say that HE hates a nation of people on this earth today.
Is this supposed to be a question?
"The afternoon came down as imperceptibly as age comes to a happy man. A little gold entered into the sunlight. The bay became bluer and dimpled with shore-wind ripples. Those lonely fishermen who believe that the fish bite at high tide left their rocks, and their places were taken by others, who were convinced that the fish bite at low tide." (John Steinbeck; Tortilla Flat, 1935)
tstor
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12/4/2015 9:24:56 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 5:50:06 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

Romans 9:13 As it is written, Iacob haue I loued, but Esau haue I hated.

Hate is not love. That whole "Christian" saying "hate doesn't always mean hate" is b.s. because if you define the word hate, it clearly tells you what it means. What it is, is that "Christians" want to define the Bible in their own words and quite frankly they make no sense because Scripture always contradicts what they teach and/or say.
Proverbs 6:16-19:
"There are six things that Jehovah does hate; yes, seven are things detestable to his soul: lofty eyes, a false tongue, and hands that are shedding innocent blood, a heart fabricating hurtful schemes, feet that are in a hurry to run to badness, a false witness that launches forth lies, and anyone sending forth contentions among brothers."

Genesis 27:41:
"However, E'sau harbored animosity against Jacob because of the blessing his father had given him, and E'sau kept saying in his heart: 'The days of mourning for my father are getting closer. After that I am going to kill Jacob my brother.'"

You now see the reason for Malachi 1:2, 3:
"'Was not E'sau the brother of Jacob?' declares Jehovah. 'But I loved Jacob, and E'sau I hated; and I made his mountains desolate and left his inheritance for the jackals of the wilderness.'"
"The afternoon came down as imperceptibly as age comes to a happy man. A little gold entered into the sunlight. The bay became bluer and dimpled with shore-wind ripples. Those lonely fishermen who believe that the fish bite at high tide left their rocks, and their places were taken by others, who were convinced that the fish bite at low tide." (John Steinbeck; Tortilla Flat, 1935)
Geogeer
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12/4/2015 9:44:38 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 2:23:57 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:19:30 AM, tstor wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:05:48 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
Why do modern day "Christians" believe in an "all-loving" god that is not biblical?
"Whoever does not love has not come to know God, because God is love." (1 John 4:8)

That was easy.

What is love?
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/5/2015 7:44:06 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 9:24:55 PM, tstor wrote:
At 12/4/2015 5:50:06 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

I am not saying that at all. Jehovah does "hate." Consider what Solomon said in Ecclesiastes 3:1, 8:
"For everything there is an appointed time, even a time for every affair under the heavens [...] a time to love and a time to hate."

So then how can HE be "all-loving" when HE hates those that do not obey HIS voice?

Or what is said in Psalms 11:5:
"Jehovah himself examines the righteous one as well as the wicked one, and anyone loving violence His soul certainly hates."

According to Deuteronomy 6:25, righteous is observing and doing the Laws. So a wicked person according to Ezekiel 18:21 is one that does not do the Laws of The Most High God.

You are not accurately representing my position. Jesus said in Matthew 5:18, 19:
"Truly I say to you that sooner would heaven and earth pass away than for one smallest letter or one stroke of a letter to pass away from the Law until all things take place. Whoever, therefore, breaks one of these least commandments and teaches others to do so will be called least in relation to the Kingdom of the heavens. But whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in relation to the Kingdom of the heavens."

Exactly, now, what nation was given the Laws?

Sorry, but that has been proven to be inaccurate in many instances. Modern translations make better use of more accurate manuscripts that did not necessarily exist or become utilized at that time.

The only reason why these bible scholars don"t like the KJV 1611 is because King James was a so called "negro" or an Israelite (if you do your research you will discover this), it is the MOST accurate and it doesn't have missing scripture or changed words. All these "New" translations are garbage because the scriptures have been changed or removed or words have been changed or removed. But hey, that"s your prerogative.

Without wanting to get too involved in a response due to my limited time, I will prove that God is not merely a tribal Jewish deity. Consider Romans 3:29:
"Or is he the God of the Jews only? Is he not also the God of people of the nations? Yes, also of people of the nations."

This is why I was asking you which Gentiles did God give salvation to. There are two different Gentiles Scripture makes reference to, which Gentiles were the ones given salvation?

Romans 10:13:
"For 'everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.'"

So you can be a rapist, murder, thief, etc" call on the name of the Lord and you"ll still be saved? Wow, "Christianity" has one sick god lol.

Even David in the Hebrew Scriptures said this in Psalms 24:1:
"To Jehovah belong the earth and everything in it,
The productive land and those dwelling on it."

If you read v6 in Psalms 24, The Most High God is talking to Jacob, the Children of Israel because Jacob was named Israel in Genesis 35:10.

Thank you for proving my point. I was not talking about who Jeremiah 26:3 is in reference to, but what God said in that verse in regards to his "change."

Yes, and HE has not changed HIS mind about how HE feels about the other nations, which is why HE is going to enslave the other nations as they have enslaved the Israelites.

You go on to mention that Jesus had a limited ministry, but that does not tell us anything. Rather, let's see what is said in Psalm 72:8:
"He [Christ] will have subjects from sea to sea And from the River to the ends of the earth."

Ok...Christ is going to have dominion over everything when He returns; He is King of Kings and Lord of Lords...how does that show that the God of Israel is an "all-loving" God?

You rightly admit that the "Israel is not the whole world." So what does that tell you?

That only Israel is going to be saved and the entire Bible has nothing but the History of the Israelites because the Bible was written to the Israelites, by the Israelites, for the Israelites. What does that tell you and where is your history in the bible?

So again, how can an "all-loving" god only love one nation of people and only send HIS son to die for one nation of people? God does not change, point blank period. The entire Bible is about the Israelites, not the whole world. The NT quotes the OT. When Christ walked the earth what covenant were the Israelites under?
God loves more than one nation, as I have shown through scripture. I have also shown instances of where God can and cannot change.

That doesn't answer my question. When Christ walked the earth what covenant were the Israelites under?

As for The Most High loving all nations, let's see what Scripture says.

Isaiah 40:15 Behold, the nations are as a drop of a bucket, and are counted as the small dust of the balance: behold, hee taketh vp the yles as a very litle thing.

Isaiah 40:17 All nations before him are as nothing, and they are counted to him lesse then nothing, and vanitie.

If you read from the beginning of Isaiah 40, you will that the LORD is talking to the real Israelites who once lived in Jerusalem.

Now let's see what the books that all "Christians" say is not inspired by God says.

2 Esdras 6:56 As for the other people which also come of Adam, thou hast said that they are nothing, but be like vnto spittle, and hast likened the abundance of them vnto a drop that falleth from a vessell.

Welp, it looks like the Apocrypha says the same thing as the OT.

Romans 11:26 And so all Israel shall be saued, as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliuerer, and shall turne away vngodlinesse from Iacob.

ALL ISRAEL shall be SAVED - it doesn't say all nations that believe and have faith in the Lord.

Isaiah 14:1 For the Lord wil haue mercie on Iacob, and wil yet choose Israel, and set them in their owne land: and the strangers shalbe ioyned with them, and they shal cleaue to the house of Iacob.

Again, Israel is not the entire world, Israel is the so called "African-Americans, Latinos and Native Americans" that went through the slavery as prophesied in Deuteronomy 28:15-68. So God will chose Israel and take us back to Israel. The strangers are the other nations.

Isaiah 14:2 And the people shall take them, and bring them to their place: and the house of Israel shall possesse them in the land of the Lord, for seruants and handmaides: and they shall take them captiues, whose captiues they were, and they shall rule ouer their oppressours.

The house of ISRAEL shall possess them (the strangers). What does the word possess mean? It means to take possession of, to have owner ship of. So the Israelites are going to take ownership of the strangers, the other nations, and enslave them. The other nations will be our captives as we were their captives. So how can a god that loves all nations, enslave all nations that are not Israel?

Revelation 13:10 has nothing to with what you have stated. As well, Deuteronomy 28 has no mentioning of all nations being enslaved.

Actually, it does. If an "all-loving" god really existed, would he enslave people? That would sound like a hypocrite to me.

As for Deuteronomy 28, verses 1-14 talk about the blessings from the Most High for keeping HIS commandments and 15-68 that talks about the Israelites going into slavery (the curses) for not keeping the law and following the customs of the other nations. That is how the real Israelites identify who we really are.

Would an "all-loving" god really say that HE hates a nation of people on this earth today.
Is this supposed to be a question?

Yes, it is.
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/5/2015 7:45:01 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 9:24:56 PM, tstor wrote:
At 12/4/2015 5:50:06 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

Romans 9:13 As it is written, Iacob haue I loued, but Esau haue I hated.

Hate is not love. That whole "Christian" saying "hate doesn't always mean hate" is b.s. because if you define the word hate, it clearly tells you what it means. What it is, is that "Christians" want to define the Bible in their own words and quite frankly they make no sense because Scripture always contradicts what they teach and/or say.
Proverbs 6:16-19:
"There are six things that Jehovah does hate; yes, seven are things detestable to his soul: lofty eyes, a false tongue, and hands that are shedding innocent blood, a heart fabricating hurtful schemes, feet that are in a hurry to run to badness, a false witness that launches forth lies, and anyone sending forth contentions among brothers."

Genesis 27:41:
"However, E'sau harbored animosity against Jacob because of the blessing his father had given him, and E'sau kept saying in his heart: 'The days of mourning for my father are getting closer. After that I am going to kill Jacob my brother.'"

You now see the reason for Malachi 1:2, 3:
"'Was not E'sau the brother of Jacob?' declares Jehovah. 'But I loved Jacob, and E'sau I hated; and I made his mountains desolate and left his inheritance for the jackals of the wilderness.'"

Who is Esau today?
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/5/2015 7:46:05 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 9:44:38 PM, Geogeer wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:23:57 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:19:30 AM, tstor wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:05:48 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
Why do modern day "Christians" believe in an "all-loving" god that is not biblical?
"Whoever does not love has not come to know God, because God is love." (1 John 4:8)

That was easy.

What is love?



BAHAHAHAHA...thanks for the laughs lol :D
tstor
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12/5/2015 9:17:52 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/5/2015 7:44:06 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

I am not saying that at all. Jehovah does "hate." Consider what Solomon said in Ecclesiastes 3:1, 8:
"For everything there is an appointed time, even a time for every affair under the heavens [...] a time to love and a time to hate."

So then how can HE be "all-loving" when HE hates those that do not obey HIS voice?
Well, you have to recognize the kind of "hate" that is being discussed. You can "hate" while still loving. "Hate" is the Bible can simply mean a "lesser love." For example, consider Luke 14:26:
"If anyone comes to me and does not hate his father and mother and wife and children and brothers and sisters, yes, and even his own life, he cannot be my disciple."

Quite obviously this means to simply have a lesser love for the earthly souls.

However, you are wrong in that God is not always "all-loving." Well, how are you defining "all-loving"?

Or what is said in Psalms 11:5:
"Jehovah himself examines the righteous one as well as the wicked one, and anyone loving violence His soul certainly hates."

According to Deuteronomy 6:25, righteous is observing and doing the Laws. So a wicked person according to Ezekiel 18:21 is one that does not do the Laws of The Most High God.
You are right, a "righteous" person follows the example of God's "righteousness." This "righteousness" is in God's laws. For example, Noah was "righteous" according to Genesis 7:1:
"After that Jehovah said to Noah: 'Go into the ark, you and all your household, because you are the one I have found to be righteous before me among this generation.'"

Why? That is explained in Genesis 6:22:
"And Noah did according to all that God had commanded him. He did just so."

A wicked person will indeed reject God's standards.

You are not accurately representing my position. Jesus said in Matthew 5:18, 19:
"Truly I say to you that sooner would heaven and earth pass away than for one smallest letter or one stroke of a letter to pass away from the Law until all things take place. Whoever, therefore, breaks one of these least commandments and teaches others to do so will be called least in relation to the Kingdom of the heavens. But whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in relation to the Kingdom of the heavens."

Exactly, now, what nation was given the Laws?
Israel. However, you will notice that the laws have been fulfilled by the sacrifice of Christ, which is shown in Romans 10:4:
"For Christ is the end of the Law, so that everyone exercising faith may have righteousness."

Sorry, but that has been proven to be inaccurate in many instances. Modern translations make better use of more accurate manuscripts that did not necessarily exist or become utilized at that time.

The only reason why these bible scholars don"t like the KJV 1611 is because King James was a so called "negro" or an Israelite (if you do your research you will discover this), it is the MOST accurate and it doesn't have missing scripture or changed words. All these "New" translations are garbage because the scriptures have been changed or removed or words have been changed or removed. But hey, that"s your prerogative.
You are fooling yourself if you think that the 1611 KJV is the most accurate. Just to start, Psalms: 2:6, 9:11, 14; 14:7; 20:2; 48:2, 11, 12; 50:2; 51:18; 53:6; 65:1, 69:35, 74:2: 76:2; 78:68; 97:8 were all mistranslated! Hence the revisions in modern KJV Bibles.

Without wanting to get too involved in a response due to my limited time, I will prove that God is not merely a tribal Jewish deity. Consider Romans 3:29:
"Or is he the God of the Jews only? Is he not also the God of people of the nations? Yes, also of people of the nations."

This is why I was asking you which Gentiles did God give salvation to. There are two different Gentiles Scripture makes reference to, which Gentiles were the ones given salvation?
Well, according to Thayer's Greek Lexicon:
"foreign nations not worshipping the true God, pagans, Gentiles, (cf. Trench, " xcviii.): and very often; in plain contradistinction to the Jews: Romans 3:29; Romans 9:24;"

Romans 10:13:
"For 'everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.'"

So you can be a rapist, murder, thief, etc" call on the name of the Lord and you"ll still be saved? Wow, "Christianity" has one sick god lol.
Absolutely. You can be a thief or rapist and still be saved. Repentance to God and the adherence of God's standards are crucial.

Even David in the Hebrew Scriptures said this in Psalms 24:1:
"To Jehovah belong the earth and everything in it,
The productive land and those dwelling on it."

If you read v6 in Psalms 24, The Most High God is talking to Jacob, the Children of Israel because Jacob was named Israel in Genesis 35:10.
Read verses 2 and 3:
"For he has solidly fixed it on the seas And firmly established it on the rivers. Who may ascend to the mountain of Jehovah, And who may stand up in his holy place? Anyone with innocent hands and a pure heart Who has not sworn a false oath by My life, Nor taken an oath deceitfully.

This is not limiting God to only those in association with Jacob, as verse six is only describing the "God of Jacob."

Thank you for proving my point. I was not talking about who Jeremiah 26:3 is in reference to, but what God said in that verse in regards to his "change."

Yes, and HE has not changed HIS mind about how HE feels about the other nations, which is why HE is going to enslave the other nations as they have enslaved the Israelites.
Sorry, but I am going to need scriptural support for "HE is going to enslave the other nations as they have enslaved the Israelites."

You go on to mention that Jesus had a limited ministry, but that does not tell us anything. Rather, let's see what is said in Psalm 72:8:
"He [Christ] will have subjects from sea to sea And from the River to the ends of the earth."

Ok...Christ is going to have dominion over everything when He returns; He is King of Kings and Lord of Lords...how does that show that the God of Israel is an "all-loving" God?
Define what you mean by "all-loving." I think that we are having a communication breakdown. However, I am showing that his love is not limited to those of the nation of Israel.

You rightly admit that the "Israel is not the whole world." So what does that tell you?

That only Israel is going to be saved and the entire Bible has nothing but the History of the Israelites because the Bible was written to the Israelites, by the Israelites, for the Israelites. What does that tell you and where is your history in the bible?
Sorry, but you have not provided scriptural evidence for only Israel being saved. You might as well talk in the mirror because none of this applies to what the Bible says.

God loves more than one nation, as I have shown through scripture. I have also shown instances of where God can and cannot change.

That doesn't answer my question. When Christ walked the earth what covenant were the Israelites under?
They were not under the New Covenant. The New Covenant did not start until the sacrifice of Jesus, which is established in Luke 22:20:
"Also, he did the same with the cup after they had the evening meal, saying: 'This cup means the new covenant by virtue of my blood, which is to be poured out in your behalf.'"
"The afternoon came down as imperceptibly as age comes to a happy man. A little gold entered into the sunlight. The bay became bluer and dimpled with shore-wind ripples. Those lonely fishermen who believe that the fish bite at high tide left their rocks, and their places were taken by others, who were convinced that the fish bite at low tide." (John Steinbeck; Tortilla Flat, 1935)
tstor
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12/5/2015 9:17:55 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/5/2015 7:44:06 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

As for The Most High loving all nations, let's see what Scripture says.

Isaiah 40:15 Behold, the nations are as a drop of a bucket, and are counted as the small dust of the balance: behold, hee taketh vp the yles as a very litle thing.

Isaiah 40:17 All nations before him are as nothing, and they are counted to him lesse then nothing, and vanitie.

If you read from the beginning of Isaiah 40, you will that the LORD is talking to the real Israelites who once lived in Jerusalem.
You will note that the context for verses 15-17 is if the nations can resist God as he fulfills his word of promise. This is not the context you are trying to establish.

Now let's see what the books that all "Christians" say is not inspired by God says.

2 Esdras 6:56 As for the other people which also come of Adam, thou hast said that they are nothing, but be like vnto spittle, and hast likened the abundance of them vnto a drop that falleth from a vessell.

Welp, it looks like the Apocrypha says the same thing as the OT.
Since I am not familiar with Esdras, I will not comment on it.

Romans 11:26 And so all Israel shall be saued, as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliuerer, and shall turne away vngodlinesse from Iacob.

ALL ISRAEL shall be SAVED - it doesn't say all nations that believe and have faith in the Lord.
This is not talking about the fleshy Israel. The Bible speaks of Israel in two ways, the fleshy and the spiritual. Consider this idea in light of verses such as 1 Corinthians 10:18:
"Look at Israel in the fleshly sense: Are not those who eat the sacrifices sharers with the altar?"

Matthew 3:9:
"Do not presume to say to yourselves, 'We have Abraham as our father.' For I say to you that God is able to raise up children for Abraham from these stones."

Romans 11:26 is talking about the spiritual Israel, as it parallels with Galatians 6:15, 16:
"For neither is circumcision anything nor is uncircumcision, but a new creation is. As for all those who walk orderly by this rule of conduct, peace and mercy be upon them, yes, upon the Israel of God."

Isaiah 14:1 For the Lord wil haue mercie on Iacob, and wil yet choose Israel, and set them in their owne land: and the strangers shalbe ioyned with them, and they shal cleaue to the house of Iacob.
This in reference to Babylon. So what is your point?

Again, Israel is not the entire world, Israel is the so called "African-Americans, Latinos and Native Americans" that went through the slavery as prophesied in Deuteronomy 28:15-68. So God will chose Israel and take us back to Israel. The strangers are the other nations.

Isaiah 14:2 And the people shall take them, and bring them to their place: and the house of Israel shall possesse them in the land of the Lord, for seruants and handmaides: and they shall take them captiues, whose captiues they were, and they shall rule ouer their oppressours.
Once again, in reference to Babylon.

The house of ISRAEL shall possess them (the strangers). What does the word possess mean? It means to take possession of, to have owner ship of. So the Israelites are going to take ownership of the strangers, the other nations, and enslave them. The other nations will be our captives as we were their captives. So how can a god that loves all nations, enslave all nations that are not Israel?
No where in those verses does it describe "enslaving all nations." You are reading into the text. Rather, it is talking about delivering Israel from the captivity of Babylon.

Revelation 13:10 has nothing to with what you have stated. As well, Deuteronomy 28 has no mentioning of all nations being enslaved.

Actually, it does. If an "all-loving" god really existed, would he enslave people? That would sound like a hypocrite to me.
God did not approve of abusive slavery. Consider Exodus 6:6-8:
"Therefore, say to the Israelites: 'I am Jehovah, and I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians and rescue you from their slavery, and I will reclaim you with an outstretched arm and with great judgments. And I will take you in as my people, and I will be your God, and you will certainly know that I am Jehovah your God who is bringing you out from under the burdens of Egypt. And I will bring you into the land that I swore with an oath to give to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob; and I will give it to you as something to possess. I am Jehovah.'"

As for Deuteronomy 28, verses 1-14 talk about the blessings from the Most High for keeping HIS commandments and 15-68 that talks about the Israelites going into slavery (the curses) for not keeping the law and following the customs of the other nations. That is how the real Israelites identify who we really are.
And who are the "real" Israelites?

Is this supposed to be a question?

Yes, it is.
Perhaps it will help for you to define what you mean by "all-loving."

"There are six things that Jehovah does hate; yes, seven are things detestable to his soul: lofty eyes, a false tongue, and hands that are shedding innocent blood, a heart fabricating hurtful schemes, feet that are in a hurry to run to badness, a false witness that launches forth lies, and anyone sending forth contentions among brothers."

Genesis 27:41:
"However, E'sau harbored animosity against Jacob because of the blessing his father had given him, and E'sau kept saying in his heart: 'The days of mourning for my father are getting closer. After that I am going to kill Jacob my brother.'"

You now see the reason for Malachi 1:2, 3:
"'Was not E'sau the brother of Jacob?' declares Jehovah. 'But I loved Jacob, and E'sau I hated; and I made his mountains desolate and left his inheritance for the jackals of the wilderness.'"

Who is Esau today?
What do you mean?
"The afternoon came down as imperceptibly as age comes to a happy man. A little gold entered into the sunlight. The bay became bluer and dimpled with shore-wind ripples. Those lonely fishermen who believe that the fish bite at high tide left their rocks, and their places were taken by others, who were convinced that the fish bite at low tide." (John Steinbeck; Tortilla Flat, 1935)
MadCornishBiker
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12/5/2015 9:18:57 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/4/2015 2:05:48 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
Why do modern day "Christians" believe in an "all-loving" god that is not biblical?

In fact Jehovah is an all loving God, but sometimes he has to resort to tough love.

If you took in the whole background of the stories in the Hebrew Scriptures you would know that.

However Jehovah is a God with a perfect balance of Love Wisdom Justice and Mercy at his core.

Of necessity he is always on the side of those on his side, and he protects them against all others, hence his determined defence of ISrael fir instance.

Jehovah loves all of his creation, but obviously he loves most those who love his ways. There is also a world of difference between loving people, which he does, and loving what they do, which all too often he does not.
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/5/2015 11:43:41 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/5/2015 9:17:52 PM, tstor wrote:
At 12/5/2015 7:44:06 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

Well, you have to recognize the kind of "hate" that is being discussed. You can "hate" while still loving. "Hate" is the Bible can simply mean a "lesser love." For example, consider Luke 14:26:
"If anyone comes to me and does not hate his father and mother and wife and children and brothers and sisters, yes, and even his own life, he cannot be my disciple."

No, that"s how your mind defines hate. The word HATE is defined as: feel intense or passionate dislike for (someone). That is what hate is, it is not "lesser love", also, "lesser love" is not Biblical. That is the problem with you modern day fake "Christians", you try to define the Bible with your own mind and Scripture specifically says, "lean not on your own understanding" "Proverbs 3:5.

However, you are wrong in that God is not always "all-loving." Well, how are you defining "all-loving"?

"All-loving" as in the "Christian" god loves all people including sinners and non-believers. I used to be a so called fake modern day "Christian", in different denominations and that is what they teach.

You are right, a "righteous" person follows the example of God's "righteousness." This "righteousness" is in God's laws. For example, Noah was "righteous" according to Genesis 7:1:
"After that Jehovah said to Noah: 'Go into the ark, you and all your household, because you are the one I have found to be righteous before me among this generation.'"

Of course, that is why only Noah and his house hold were saved, they served the LORD.

Israel. However, you will notice that the laws have been fulfilled by the sacrifice of Christ, which is shown in Romans 10:4:
"For Christ is the end of the Law, so that everyone exercising faith may have righteousness."

Wow, you are confused, aren"t you? If Christ fulfilled the Law, why did you post Matthew 5:18-19? If Christ fulfilled the laws how do we show God love? If Christ fulfilled the law, I guess we are free to murder, rape, steal, etc" we can be homosexuals and adulterers and we"ll still be saved, lol.
Christ didn"t do away nor did He fulfill the laws, yet. The only law He fulfilled was animal sacrifice (Hebrews 10:4-9). If Christ fulfilled the laws, why is this earth and heaven still here, they haven"t passed yet, so how has Christ fulfilled the laws?

You are fooling yourself if you think that the 1611 KJV is the most accurate. Just to start, Psalms: 2:6, 9:11, 14; 14:7; 20:2; 48:2, 11, 12; 50:2; 51:18; 53:6; 65:1, 69:35, 74:2: 76:2; 78:68; 97:8 were all mistranslated! Hence the revisions in modern KJV Bibles.

Lol"so what makes you think that the "New" translations are accurate if the KJV has mistranslated scriptures? The NWT was written by Edomites, as the rest of these "new" translations with missing scripture and words, etc"

Well, according to Thayer's Greek Lexicon:
"foreign nations not worshipping the true God, pagans, Gentiles, (cf. Trench, " xcviii.): and very often; in plain contradistinction to the Jews: Romans 3:29; Romans 9:24;"

As far as I know, Thayer"s Greek Lexicon was not written by the Israelite men of the LORD, it was written by the heathen so of course they are going to say the Gentiles are all nations that are not Israel, yet the bible says otherwise.

The definition of "GENTILE" from the Zondervan Compact Bible Dictionary: USUALLY it means a non-Israelite people. The key word is USUALLY. So in other words there were Israelites (primarily the Northern kingdom of Israel led by Ephraim that were also called the lost sheep because we were scattered abroad. Read Deut 28:64, John 11:47-52, and James 1:1) that were called GENTILES (Read Eph2:11 and 1 Cor 12:2). The Northern kingdom of Israel headed by Ephraim were broken that it be not a people. (Read Isa 7:8-9). Also the Northern kingdom went to straight idolatry under Jeroboam (Read 1 Kings 12:26-30 and Hos. 4:17). So Ephraim (the 10 tribes of the house of Israel) was cast off from being his people because of idolatry and sin and became known as GENTILES in the New Testament being GRAFTED back in the fold with Judah (Jews) when you read Romans 11 and Hosea 1:6-11, and Hosea 2:23, 1 Peter 2:10, and Ezek.37:15-22 and Judah ( Jews which consists of Judah, Benjamin, and Levi) was still faithful to God. (Read Hosea 11:12) The Most High and Christ has never dealt with the HEATHEN GENTILES. (Read Psalms 147:19-20 and 2 Esdras 6:53-59).
That is who the Gentiles are. It is not the heathen that have enslaved and mistreated the Israelites.

Absolutely. You can be a thief or rapist and still be saved. Repentance to God and the adherence of God's standards are crucial.

Thank you for exposing "Christianity"s" sickness. You can be a rapist and still go to heaven, ya"ll have a sick god, the "white" man. What would the heathen repent from?

Read verses 2 and 3:
"For he has solidly fixed it on the seas And firmly established it on the rivers. Who may ascend to the mountain of Jehovah, And who may stand up in his holy place? Anyone with innocent hands and a pure heart Who has not sworn a false oath by My life, Nor taken an oath deceitfully.
This is not limiting God to only those in association with Jacob, as verse six is only describing the "God of Jacob."

Anyone within the Nation of Israel, He within the Nation of Israel. That is why it says Jacob in v6. The Old and New Testaments are written to Israel.
Jeremiah 31:31 Behold, the dayes come, saith the Lord, that I will make a newe couenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Iudah.
Hebrews 8:8 For finding fault with them, hee saith, Behold, the dayes come (saith the Lord) when I will make a new couenant with the house of Israel, and the house of Iudah.
So again, the Bible if for Israel, not the entire world.

Sorry, but I am going to need scriptural support for "HE is going to enslave the other nations as they have enslaved the Israelites."

I just gave it to you.

Isaiah 14:2 And the people shall take them, and bring them to their place: and the house of Israel shall possesse them in the land of the Lord, for seruants and handmaides: and they shall take them captiues, whose captiues they were, and they shall rule ouer their oppressours.

Define what you mean by "all-loving." I think that we are having a communication breakdown. However, I am showing that his love is not limited to those of the nation of Israel.

I defined "all-loving" and maybe you can explain Isaiah 40:15;17?

Sorry, but you have not provided scriptural evidence for only Israel being saved. You might as well talk in the mirror because none of this applies to what the Bible says.

Acutally, I did.

Romans 11:26 And so all Israel shall be saued, as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliuerer, and shall turne away vngodlinesse from Iacob.

Precept
Isaiah 59:20 And the redeemer shall come to Zion, and vnto them that turne from transgression in Iacob, saith the Lord.

Isaiah 45:17 But Israel shall bee saued in the Lord with an euerlasting saluation: ye shall not be ashamed nor confounded world without end.

They were not under the New Covenant. The New Covenant did not start until the sacrifice of Jesus, which is established in Luke 22:20:
"Also, he did the same with the cup after they had the evening meal, saying: 'This cup means the new covenant by virt
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/5/2015 11:44:06 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/5/2015 9:17:52 PM, tstor wrote:
At 12/5/2015 7:44:06 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

They were not under the New Covenant. The New Covenant did not start until the sacrifice of Jesus, which is established in Luke 22:20:
"Also, he did the same with the cup after they had the evening meal, saying: 'This cup means the new covenant by virtue of my blood, which is to be poured out in your behalf.'"

Exactly, they were under the Old Covenant, which means that the Israelites were keeping the Laws of the Old Covenant. Everything in the NT is quoted from the OT because the Israelites were under the OT when Christ walked the earth. The NT didn"t just pop out of nowhere, it came from the OT, which means that besides animal sacrifice being done away with (since Christ was the sacrifice), there is nothing new in the NT. The NT is just a new covenant from God to the Israelites on what we need to do to be delivered from captivity. Christ"s disciples were Israelites, they weren"t people of different nations. Thus, if He was talking to the Jews, how are they considered the whole world?
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/5/2015 11:59:33 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/5/2015 9:17:55 PM, tstor wrote:
At 12/5/2015 7:44:06 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

You will note that the context for verses 15-17 is if the nations can resist God as he fulfills his word of promise. This is not the context you are trying to establish.

Is that what the Scriptures say? No, that is how The Most High God feels about the other nations. Stop twisting the Scriptures.

This is not talking about the fleshy Israel. The Bible speaks of Israel in two ways, the fleshy and the spiritual. Consider this idea in light of verses such as 1 Corinthians 10:18:
"Look at Israel in the fleshly sense: Are not those who eat the sacrifices sharers with the altar?"

What??? Uh....there is no such thing as "spiritual Israel".

Romans 9:3-5
3 For I could wish that my selfe were accursed from Christ, for my brethren my kinsemen according to the flesh:

4 Who are Israelites: to whom perteineth the adoption, and the glory, and the couenants, and the giuing of the Law, and the seruice of God, and the promises:

5 Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is ouer all, God blessed for euer, Amen.

So please, show me the Scripture that says "spiritual Israel".

Matthew 3:9:
"Do not presume to say to yourselves, 'We have Abraham as our father.' For I say to you that God is able to raise up children for Abraham from these stones."

Romans 11:26 is talking about the spiritual Israel, as it parallels with Galatians 6:15, 16:
"For neither is circumcision anything nor is uncircumcision, but a new creation is. As for all those who walk orderly by this rule of conduct, peace and mercy be upon them, yes, upon the Israel of God."

What does circumcision and uncircumcision mean in this verse? And, again, where did Romans 11:26 say "spiritual Israel"?

Isaiah 14:1 For the Lord wil haue mercie on Iacob, and wil yet choose Israel, and set them in their owne land: and the strangers shalbe ioyned with them, and they shal cleaue to the house of Iacob.
This in reference to Babylon. So what is your point?

What??? This is talking about Israel being delivered and the strangers going into captivity.

Isaiah 14:2 And the people shall take them, and bring them to their place: and the house of Israel shall possesse them in the land of the Lord, for seruants and handmaides: and they shall take them captiues, whose captiues they were, and they shall rule ouer their oppressours.
Once again, in reference to Babylon.

No, this is actually talking about all the nations that enslaved the so called "Negros, Latinos and Native Americans" or the Israelites.

The house of ISRAEL shall possess them (the strangers). What does the word possess mean? It means to take possession of, to have owner ship of. So the Israelites are going to take ownership of the strangers, the other nations, and enslave them. The other nations will be our captives as we were their captives. So how can a god that loves all nations, enslave all nations that are not Israel?
No where in those verses does it describe "enslaving all nations." You are reading into the text. Rather, it is talking about delivering Israel from the captivity of Babylon.

Wow, you really are not reading the Scriptures. Do you not see where it says "and they shall take them captiues, whose captiues they were, and they shall rule ouer their oppressours."?

God did not approve of abusive slavery. Consider Exodus 6:6-8:
"Therefore, say to the Israelites: 'I am Jehovah, and I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians and rescue you from their slavery, and I will reclaim you with an outstretched arm and with great judgments. And I will take you in as my people, and I will be your God, and you will certainly know that I am Jehovah your God who is bringing you out from under the burdens of Egypt. And I will bring you into the land that I swore with an oath to give to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob; and I will give it to you as something to possess. I am Jehovah.'"

Well then it's obvious you have not read Deuteronomy 28:15-68.

And who are the "real" Israelites?

Dude, I already told you, the so called "African-Americans, Latinos and Native Americans"...again, read Deut 28:15-68 and match it up with the real American history and the real transatlantic slave trade.

Perhaps it will help for you to define what you mean by "all-loving."

I already have.

Who is Esau today?
What do you mean?

Ok, I'm done, if you don't know who Esau is today, the Edomites, you are not worthy of my time. The Bible, which you obviously do not read nor do you understand (Matt 13:10-13), specifically gives you hints and clues as to who is who today. Good bye...
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/6/2015 12:00:44 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/5/2015 9:18:57 PM, MadCornishBiker wrote:
At 12/4/2015 2:05:48 AM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:
Why do modern day "Christians" believe in an "all-loving" god that is not biblical?

In fact Jehovah is an all loving God, but sometimes he has to resort to tough love.

If you took in the whole background of the stories in the Hebrew Scriptures you would know that.

However Jehovah is a God with a perfect balance of Love Wisdom Justice and Mercy at his core.

Of necessity he is always on the side of those on his side, and he protects them against all others, hence his determined defence of ISrael fir instance.

Jehovah loves all of his creation, but obviously he loves most those who love his ways. There is also a world of difference between loving people, which he does, and loving what they do, which all too often he does not.

MCB, I'm going to keep asking you the same question over and over and over until you can show me the Scripture. Show me the Scripture that says "spiritual Israel".
tstor
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12/6/2015 4:22:35 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/5/2015 11:43:41 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

Well, you have to recognize the kind of "hate" that is being discussed. You can "hate" while still loving. "Hate" is the Bible can simply mean a "lesser love." For example, consider Luke 14:26:
"If anyone comes to me and does not hate his father and mother and wife and children and brothers and sisters, yes, and even his own life, he cannot be my disciple."

No, that"s how your mind defines hate. The word HATE is defined as: feel intense or passionate dislike for (someone). That is what hate is, it is not "lesser love", also, "lesser love" is not Biblical. That is the problem with you modern day fake "Christians", you try to define the Bible with your own mind and Scripture specifically says, "lean not on your own understanding" "Proverbs 3:5.
The Greek word is miseo, defined as:
properly, to detest (on a comparative basis); hence, denounce; to love someone or something less than someone (something) else, i.e. to renounce one choice in favor of another.

If you want to ignore what the Bible actually says, then do not expect me to take you very seriously.

However, you are wrong in that God is not always "all-loving." Well, how are you defining "all-loving"?

"All-loving" as in the "Christian" god loves all people including sinners and non-believers. I used to be a so called fake modern day "Christian", in different denominations and that is what they teach.
Some people are beyond forgiveness, which is described in Jeremiah 13:23:
"Can a Cush'ite change his skin, or a leopard its spots?
If so, then you can do good,
You who are trained to do bad."

You are right, a "righteous" person follows the example of God's "righteousness." This "righteousness" is in God's laws. For example, Noah was "righteous" according to Genesis 7:1:
"After that Jehovah said to Noah: 'Go into the ark, you and all your household, because you are the one I have found to be righteous before me among this generation.'"

Of course, that is why only Noah and his house hold were saved, they served the LORD.
I am glad we agree.

Israel. However, you will notice that the laws have been fulfilled by the sacrifice of Christ, which is shown in Romans 10:4:
"For Christ is the end of the Law, so that everyone exercising faith may have righteousness."

Wow, you are confused, aren"t you? If Christ fulfilled the Law, why did you post Matthew 5:18-19? If Christ fulfilled the laws how do we show God love? If Christ fulfilled the law, I guess we are free to murder, rape, steal, etc" we can be homosexuals and adulterers and we"ll still be saved, lol.
I am not at all confused. Christ fulfilled the law, which is quite clearly told of in Romans 10:4. Matthew 5:17, 18 reads:
"Do not think I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I came, not to destroy, but to fulfill. 18 Truly I say to you that sooner would heaven and earth pass away than for one smallest letter or one stroke of a letter to pass away from the Law until all things take place."

The laws were not "destroyed," but were fulfilled by the death of Christ.

Christ didn"t do away nor did He fulfill the laws, yet. The only law He fulfilled was animal sacrifice (Hebrews 10:4-9). If Christ fulfilled the laws, why is this earth and heaven still here, they haven"t passed yet, so how has Christ fulfilled the laws?
You are greatly misunderstanding the whole point of the Greek Scriptures if you think that.

You are fooling yourself if you think that the 1611 KJV is the most accurate. Just to start, Psalms: 2:6, 9:11, 14; 14:7; 20:2; 48:2, 11, 12; 50:2; 51:18; 53:6; 65:1, 69:35, 74:2: 76:2; 78:68; 97:8 were all mistranslated! Hence the revisions in modern KJV Bibles.

Lol"so what makes you think that the "New" translations are accurate if the KJV has mistranslated scriptures? The NWT was written by Edomites, as the rest of these "new" translations with missing scripture and words, etc"
Prove that the other translations are inaccurate. I gave you specific examples of the 1611 KJV being inaccurate. Now it is your turn to do that with the NWT.

Well, according to Thayer's Greek Lexicon:
"foreign nations not worshipping the true God, pagans, Gentiles, (cf. Trench, " xcviii.): and very often; in plain contradistinction to the Jews: Romans 3:29; Romans 9:24;"

As far as I know, Thayer"s Greek Lexicon was not written by the Israelite men of the LORD, it was written by the heathen so of course they are going to say the Gentiles are all nations that are not Israel, yet the bible says otherwise.

The definition of "GENTILE" from the Zondervan Compact Bible Dictionary: USUALLY it means a non-Israelite people. The key word is USUALLY. So in other words there were Israelites (primarily the Northern kingdom of Israel led by Ephraim that were also called the lost sheep because we were scattered abroad. Read Deut 28:64, John 11:47-52, and James 1:1) that were called GENTILES (Read Eph2:11 and 1 Cor 12:2). The Northern kingdom of Israel headed by Ephraim were broken that it be not a people. (Read Isa 7:8-9). Also the Northern kingdom went to straight idolatry under Jeroboam (Read 1 Kings 12:26-30 and Hos. 4:17). So Ephraim (the 10 tribes of the house of Israel) was cast off from being his people because of idolatry and sin and became known as GENTILES in the New Testament being GRAFTED back in the fold with Judah (Jews) when you read Romans 11 and Hosea 1:6-11, and Hosea 2:23, 1 Peter 2:10, and Ezek.37:15-22 and Judah ( Jews which consists of Judah, Benjamin, and Levi) was still faithful to God. (Read Hosea 11:12) The Most High and Christ has never dealt with the HEATHEN GENTILES. (Read Psalms 147:19-20 and 2 Esdras 6:53-59).
That is who the Gentiles are. It is not the heathen that have enslaved and mistreated the Israelites.
Why not quote the instances that the dictionary references? You can't because you copied your entire response from this Google+ post:
https://plus.google.com...

Absolutely. You can be a thief or rapist and still be saved. Repentance to God and the adherence of God's standards are crucial.

Thank you for exposing "Christianity"s" sickness. You can be a rapist and still go to heaven, ya"ll have a sick god, the "white" man. What would the heathen repent from?
We have a God of forgiveness. I am sorry that forgiveness is not something you find appealing.

Read verses 2 and 3:
"For he has solidly fixed it on the seas And firmly established it on the rivers. Who may ascend to the mountain of Jehovah, And who may stand up in his holy place? Anyone with innocent hands and a pure heart Who has not sworn a false oath by My life, Nor taken an oath deceitfully.
This is not limiting God to only those in association with Jacob, as verse six is only describing the "God of Jacob."

Anyone within the Nation of Israel, He within the Nation of Israel. That is why it says Jacob in v6. The Old and New Testaments are written to Israel.
Once again, you are reading into the text. There is no indication that God is limited to only the people of Jacob.

Jeremiah 31:31 Behold, the dayes come, saith the Lord, that I will make a newe couenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Iudah.
Hebrews 8:8 For finding fault with them, hee saith, Behold, the dayes come (saith the Lord) when I will make a new couenant with the house of Israel, and the house of Iudah.
So again, the Bible if for Israel, not the entire world.
Wrong again. Consider Acts 13:46:
"Then Paul and Bar'nabas boldly said to them: 'It was necessary for the word of God to be spoken first to you. Since you are rejecting it and do not judge yourselves worthy of everlasting life, look! we turn to the nations.'"
"The afternoon came down as imperceptibly as age comes to a happy man. A little gold entered into the sunlight. The bay became bluer and dimpled with shore-wind ripples. Those lonely fishermen who believe that the fish bite at high tide left their rocks, and their places were taken by others, who were convinced that the fish bite at low tide." (John Steinbeck; Tortilla Flat, 1935)
tstor
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12/6/2015 4:22:37 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/5/2015 11:43:41 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

Sorry, but I am going to need scriptural support for "HE is going to enslave the other nations as they have enslaved the Israelites."

I just gave it to you.

Isaiah 14:2 And the people shall take them, and bring them to their place: and the house of Israel shall possesse them in the land of the Lord, for seruants and handmaides: and they shall take them captiues, whose captiues they were, and they shall rule ouer their oppressours.
That does not support your claim. Isaiah 14 is talking about Babylon. Read verse 3 and 4:
"In the day when Jehovah gives you rest from your pain and from your turmoil and from the hard slavery imposed on you, you will recite this proverb against the king of Babylon: 'How the one forcing others to work has met his end! How the oppression has ended!'"

Define what you mean by "all-loving." I think that we are having a communication breakdown. However, I am showing that his love is not limited to those of the nation of Israel.

I defined "all-loving" and maybe you can explain Isaiah 40:15;17?
I already did. "You will note that the context for verses 15-17 is if the nations can resist God as he fulfills his word of promise."

Sorry, but you have not provided scriptural evidence for only Israel being saved. You might as well talk in the mirror because none of this applies to what the Bible says.

Acutally, I did.

Romans 11:26 And so all Israel shall be saued, as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliuerer, and shall turne away vngodlinesse from Iacob.
I will reiterate, that is in reference to the spiritual Israelites.

They were not under the New Covenant. The New Covenant did not start until the sacrifice of Jesus, which is established in Luke 22:20:
"Also, he did the same with the cup after they had the evening meal, saying: 'This cup means the new covenant by virtue of my blood, which is to be poured out in your behalf.'"

Exactly, they were under the Old Covenant, which means that the Israelites were keeping the Laws of the Old Covenant. Everything in the NT is quoted from the OT because the Israelites were under the OT when Christ walked the earth. The NT didn"t just pop out of nowhere, it came from the OT, which means that besides animal sacrifice being done away with (since Christ was the sacrifice), there is nothing new in the NT. The NT is just a new covenant from God to the Israelites on what we need to do to be delivered from captivity. Christ"s disciples were Israelites, they weren"t people of different nations. Thus, if He was talking to the Jews, how are they considered the whole world?
You are not reading the Greek Scriptures if you think the new covenant is between God and the Israelites only. I have shown you this time and time again.
"The afternoon came down as imperceptibly as age comes to a happy man. A little gold entered into the sunlight. The bay became bluer and dimpled with shore-wind ripples. Those lonely fishermen who believe that the fish bite at high tide left their rocks, and their places were taken by others, who were convinced that the fish bite at low tide." (John Steinbeck; Tortilla Flat, 1935)
tstor
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12/6/2015 4:22:39 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/5/2015 11:59:33 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

You will note that the context for verses 15-17 is if the nations can resist God as he fulfills his word of promise. This is not the context you are trying to establish.

Is that what the Scriptures say? No, that is how The Most High God feels about the other nations. Stop twisting the Scriptures.
What I said is directly from the scriptures. You can pretend that they are something else, but you might as well just read a different book.

This is not talking about the fleshy Israel. The Bible speaks of Israel in two ways, the fleshy and the spiritual. Consider this idea in light of verses such as 1 Corinthians 10:18:
"Look at Israel in the fleshly sense: Are not those who eat the sacrifices sharers with the altar?"

What??? Uh....there is no such thing as "spiritual Israel".

Romans 9:3-5
3 For I could wish that my selfe were accursed from Christ, for my brethren my kinsemen according to the flesh:

4 Who are Israelites: to whom perteineth the adoption, and the glory, and the couenants, and the giuing of the Law, and the seruice of God, and the promises:

5 Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is ouer all, God blessed for euer, Amen.

So please, show me the Scripture that says "spiritual Israel".
Read Romans 9:6-8:
"However, it is not as though the word of God has failed. For not all who descend from Israel are really 'Israel.' Neither are they all children because they are Abraham's offspring; rather, 'What will be called your offspring will be through Isaac.' That is, the children in the flesh are not really the children of God, but the children by the promise are counted as the offspring."

Matthew 3:9:
"Do not presume to say to yourselves, 'We have Abraham as our father.' For I say to you that God is able to raise up children for Abraham from these stones."

Romans 11:26 is talking about the spiritual Israel, as it parallels with Galatians 6:15, 16:
"For neither is circumcision anything nor is uncircumcision, but a new creation is. As for all those who walk orderly by this rule of conduct, peace and mercy be upon them, yes, upon the Israel of God."

What does circumcision and uncircumcision mean in this verse? And, again, where did Romans 11:26 say "spiritual Israel"?
The expression "the Israel of God," shows that it has nothing to do with whether one is a circumcised descendant of Abraham or not. Romans 11:26 uses the expression "all Israel," which is the complete number of spiritual Israelites.

Isaiah 14:1 For the Lord wil haue mercie on Iacob, and wil yet choose Israel, and set them in their owne land: and the strangers shalbe ioyned with them, and they shal cleaue to the house of Iacob.
This in reference to Babylon. So what is your point?

What??? This is talking about Israel being delivered and the strangers going into captivity.
Delivered from where? And taking who captive? I assume your answer is not Babylon, so I am interested in how you twist the scriptures here.

Isaiah 14:2 And the people shall take them, and bring them to their place: and the house of Israel shall possesse them in the land of the Lord, for seruants and handmaides: and they shall take them captiues, whose captiues they were, and they shall rule ouer their oppressours.
Once again, in reference to Babylon.

No, this is actually talking about all the nations that enslaved the so called "Negros, Latinos and Native Americans" or the Israelites.
We are talking about Isaiah 14:2, right? If so, then you have not read it.

The house of ISRAEL shall possess them (the strangers). What does the word possess mean? It means to take possession of, to have owner ship of. So the Israelites are going to take ownership of the strangers, the other nations, and enslave them. The other nations will be our captives as we were their captives. So how can a god that loves all nations, enslave all nations that are not Israel?
No where in those verses does it describe "enslaving all nations." You are reading into the text. Rather, it is talking about delivering Israel from the captivity of Babylon.

Wow, you really are not reading the Scriptures. Do you not see where it says "and they shall take them captiues, whose captiues they were, and they shall rule ouer their oppressours."?
Yes, I do. However, it is in reference to Babylon. This is not a global operation.

God did not approve of abusive slavery. Consider Exodus 6:6-8:
"Therefore, say to the Israelites: 'I am Jehovah, and I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians and rescue you from their slavery, and I will reclaim you with an outstretched arm and with great judgments. And I will take you in as my people, and I will be your God, and you will certainly know that I am Jehovah your God who is bringing you out from under the burdens of Egypt. And I will bring you into the land that I swore with an oath to give to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob; and I will give it to you as something to possess. I am Jehovah.'"

Well then it's obvious you have not read Deuteronomy 28:15-68.
I have. You are the one who is not reading the verses.

And who are the "real" Israelites?

Dude, I already told you, the so called "African-Americans, Latinos and Native Americans"...again, read Deut 28:15-68 and match it up with the real American history and the real transatlantic slave trade.
Did someone slap the sense out of you? Tilt your head so that it is level and actually think about what you are saying.

Perhaps it will help for you to define what you mean by "all-loving."

I already have.
I responded.

Who is Esau today?
What do you mean?

Ok, I'm done, if you don't know who Esau is today, the Edomites, you are not worthy of my time. The Bible, which you obviously do not read nor do you understand (Matt 13:10-13), specifically gives you hints and clues as to who is who today. Good bye...
Thank you for correcting your question. All you had to do was ask who the "Edomites" are. Not who "E'sau" is. Edom serves as a symbol of all the nations that prove themselves to be enemies of God's worshipers.
"The afternoon came down as imperceptibly as age comes to a happy man. A little gold entered into the sunlight. The bay became bluer and dimpled with shore-wind ripples. Those lonely fishermen who believe that the fish bite at high tide left their rocks, and their places were taken by others, who were convinced that the fish bite at low tide." (John Steinbeck; Tortilla Flat, 1935)
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/6/2015 8:24:30 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/6/2015 4:22:35 AM, tstor wrote:
At 12/5/2015 11:43:41 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

The Greek word is miseo, defined as:
properly, to detest (on a comparative basis); hence, denounce; to love someone or something less than someone (something) else, i.e. to renounce one choice in favor of another.

If you want to ignore what the Bible actually says, then do not expect me to take you very seriously.

I"m not ignoring Scripture, I"m ignoring your private interpretations of Scripture. Precept must be upon precept (Isaiah 28:10), which you do not know, that is why you immediately run to the Greek, Hebrew, etc" strongs to privately interpret the Bible.

I am not at all confused. Christ fulfilled the law, which is quite clearly told of in Romans 10:4. Matthew 5:17, 18 reads:
"Do not think I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I came, not to destroy, but to fulfill. 18 Truly I say to you that sooner would heaven and earth pass away than for one smallest letter or one stroke of a letter to pass away from the Law until all things take place."

The laws were not "destroyed," but were fulfilled by the death of Christ.

What law did Christ fulfill?

You are greatly misunderstanding the whole point of the Greek Scriptures if you think that.

Greek Scriptures??? Um"I speak English and read English, not greek.

Prove that the other translations are inaccurate. I gave you specific examples of the 1611 KJV being inaccurate. Now it is your turn to do that with the NWT.

I"m not sure how those examples were inaccurate. Basically this is how JW"s think. If you don"t agree with their cult, believe in their beliefs or believe in their bible, you are going to hell"lol. The other translations that are after 1611 are all corrupt. That is why they have different wordings, missing scriptures and words. If you do your research, King James hired the best translators to translate the Scriptures for the Israelites. I"m not going to list the examples because there are tons of errors in these modern day translations; you"ll have to do your own research on that one.

The definition of "GENTILE" from the Zondervan Compact Bible Dictionary: USUALLY it means a non-Israelite people. The key word is USUALLY. So in other words there were Israelites (primarily the Northern kingdom of Israel led by Ephraim that were also called the lost sheep because we were scattered abroad. Read Deut 28:64, John 11:47-52, and James 1:1) that were called GENTILES (Read Eph2:11 and 1 Cor 12:2). The Northern kingdom of Israel headed by Ephraim were broken that it be not a people. (Read Isa 7:8-9). Also the Northern kingdom went to straight idolatry under Jeroboam (Read 1 Kings 12:26-30 and Hos. 4:17). So Ephraim (the 10 tribes of the house of Israel) was cast off from being his people because of idolatry and sin and became known as GENTILES in the New Testament being GRAFTED back in the fold with Judah (Jews) when you read Romans 11 and Hosea 1:6-11, and Hosea 2:23, 1 Peter 2:10, and Ezek.37:15-22 and Judah ( Jews which consists of Judah, Benjamin, and Levi) was still faithful to God. (Read Hosea 11:12) The Most High and Christ has never dealt with the HEATHEN GENTILES. (Read Psalms 147:19-20 and 2 Esdras 6:53-59).
That is who the Gentiles are. It is not the heathen that have enslaved and mistreated the Israelites.
Why not quote the instances that the dictionary references? You can't because you copied your entire response from this Google+ post:
https://plus.google.com...

1. Because I read as Scripture tells us Israelites...Precept MUST be upon Precept. Scripture doesn't say to turn to the dictionary references.

2. Thanks for stocking my page.

We have a God of forgiveness. I am sorry that forgiveness is not something you find appealing.

Oh, I"m sure you do. He forgives child molesters, rapists, etc" all they have to do is say I believe in Jesus and call on the name of the lord"lol

Wrong again. Consider Acts 13:46:
"Then Paul and Bar'nabas boldly said to them: 'It was necessary for the word of God to be spoken first to you. Since you are rejecting it and do not judge yourselves worthy of everlasting l

I can tell you didn"t understand the Biblical breakdown of the Israelite Gentiles. Why did Paul turn to the Gentile nations to preach the Word?
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/6/2015 8:33:27 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/6/2015 4:22:37 AM, tstor wrote:
At 12/5/2015 11:43:41 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

That does not support your claim. Isaiah 14 is talking about Babylon. Read verse 3 and 4:
"In the day when Jehovah gives you rest from your pain and from your turmoil and from the hard slavery imposed on you, you will recite this proverb against the king of Babylon: 'How the one forcing others to work has met his end! How the oppression has ended!'"

Can you show me in there were it says "Babylon"? As far as I can see it says, "oppressors" and "captives", I don"t see anywhere where it says "Babylon".

I already did. "You will note that the context for verses 15-17 is if the nations can resist God as he fulfills his word of promise."

I still don"t see in any of those scriptures where it says, "if the nations can resist God as he fulfills his word of promise."

I will reiterate, that is in reference to the spiritual Israelites.

Again, can you show me the scripture that says "spiritual Israelites"?

You are not reading the Greek Scriptures if you think the new covenant is between God and the Israelites only. I have shown you this time and time again.

Wow, that shows how much faith you have in your NWT if you have to keep running to the Greek Scriptures"lol. I think I"ve shown you time and time again that Scripture clearly says the OT and NT are for Judah and Israel (Jer 31:31; Heb 8:8;10), not the whole world.
TheWORDisLIFE
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12/6/2015 9:05:10 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 12/6/2015 4:22:39 AM, tstor wrote:
At 12/5/2015 11:59:33 PM, TheWORDisLIFE wrote:

What I said is directly from the scriptures. You can pretend that they are something else, but you might as well just read a different book.

I think that"s what you"re doing; going back from the English to the Greek lol. And again, PRECEPT MUST BE UPON PRECEPT.

Read Romans 9:6-8:
"However, it is not as though the word of God has failed. For not all who descend from Israel are really 'Israel.' Neither are they all children because they are Abraham's offspring; rather, 'What will be called your offspring will be through Isaac.' That is, the children in the flesh are not really the children of God, but the children by the promise are counted as the offspring."

If you read precept upon precept, what is this talking about?

And if you are going to ask what is precept upon precept, please don't even respond back.

The expression "the Israel of God," shows that it has nothing to do with whether one is a circumcised descendant of Abraham or not. Romans 11:26 uses the expression "all Israel," which is the complete number of spiritual Israelites.

I"m sorry, I still don"t see "spiritual Israelite". The Israel of God is simply saying Israel is God"s. That Scripture is showing God"s possession, which is Israel"the Israelites.

Delivered from where?
You really don"t know the bible, do you? What nation of people were taken captives on a slave ship? What nation of people had their land stolen from them by another nation? What nation of people were sold as slaves to the different nations? As far as I know, the so called "African-Americans" were sold to the so called "white" man or Esau for slaves and they were taken to America on slave ships (Deut 28:68), with yokes of iron on their neck (Deut 28:48) and the rest is for you to read, since you obviously don"t, which is what "Christians" do. They only read their Bibles on Sundays"lol. So ya, the Israelites will be delivered from captivity because yes the so called "African-Americans, Latinos and Native Americans" are still in captivity, just not hard bondage like we once were.

And taking who captive?
When Christ returns, He and the remnant of the Israelites will take captive our oppressors and they will take our oppressors to our land and we will take possession of our oppressors, meaning we will own them and they will be enslaved.

I assume your answer is not Babylon, so I am interested in how you twist the scriptures here.

Babylon? "White" people were not the only ones that enslaved us, all the other nations took part in our slavery as well. "White"" people are just going to be jacked up worse by the The Most High and Christ because the Caucasian race is just evil as hell.

We are talking about Isaiah 14:2, right? If so, then you have not read it.

Seems you haven"t read it correctly, since you continue running to the Greek Scriptures and Dictionary references lol.

Yes, I do. However, it is in reference to Babylon. This is not a global operation.

Then I think you need to study the true history of the nations if you think only the "white" race enslaved us. All nations enslaved us"read the Bible the history of the Israelites is in there"research the true history of nations because it correlates with the Scriptures.

Did someone slap the sense out of you? Tilt your head so that it is level and actually think about what you are saying.

More than likely that happened to you because you have not read the Bible. The only scriptures you read are the verse that talk about the love of God, that is why you don"t understand any of the scriptures and you keep having to run to the dictionary reference, Greek Scriptures, Greek and Hebrew Strongs, etc"you obviously don"t know precept upon precept, which is ok because the Bible is not for you to understand.

Thank you for correcting your question. All you had to do was ask who the "Edomites" are.

Lol"Esau is the father of the nation of Edom, the Edomites. Esau was and is an Edomite"lol.

Not who "E'sau" is. Edom serves as a symbol of all the nations that prove themselves to be enemies of God's worshipers.

You are dumber than rock. Esau is not a symbol, Esau is a nation of people on this earth today.
Read this article, it explains who Esau is.
http://www.israelunite.org...