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Matthew 12:40 a common idiom?

rstrats
Posts: 87
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2/6/2016 2:47:13 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that the missing 3rd night of the prophesy is due to common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern was used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise.

And remember, the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. There are other topics that do that.
Dogknox
Posts: 5,687
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2/27/2017 4:17:12 AM
Posted: 4 months ago
At 2/6/2016 2:47:13 AM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that the missing 3rd night of the prophesy is due to common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern was used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise.

And remember, the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. There are other topics that do that.

Good to meet you..
I am sure any one knows exactly what your question is..
How is this....
1) When Jesus died the sun was darkened!
Luke 23:45
And the sun was darkened, and the veil of the temple was rent in the midst.

2) Then Friday NIGHT then 3) Saturday.. NIGHT.. Thus three nights!

1) Died it was daylight before the sun went down on Friday.
2) Saturday in the tomb.
3) Sunday after dawn Jesus rose... Thus... The third DAY!
Mark 16:2
And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulcher at the rising of the sun.
annanicole
Posts: 21,080
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2/27/2017 4:40:04 AM
Posted: 4 months ago
At 2/27/2017 4:17:12 AM, Dogknox wrote:
At 2/6/2016 2:47:13 AM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that the missing 3rd night of the prophesy is due to common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern was used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise.

And remember, the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. There are other topics that do that.

Good to meet you..
I am sure any one knows exactly what your question is..
How is this....
1) When Jesus died the sun was darkened!
Luke 23:45
And the sun was darkened, and the veil of the temple was rent in the midst.

2) Then Friday NIGHT then 3) Saturday.. NIGHT.. Thus three nights!

1) Died it was daylight before the sun went down on Friday.
2) Saturday in the tomb.
3) Sunday after dawn Jesus rose... Thus... The third DAY!
Mark 16:2
And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulcher at the rising of the sun.\

Why don't you try reading the guy's question?
annanicole
Posts: 21,080
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2/27/2017 4:42:49 AM
Posted: 4 months ago
At 2/6/2016 2:47:13 AM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that the missing 3rd night of the prophesy is due to common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern was used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise.

I wouldn't necessarily say it was a "common" idiom, and one need not undertake to prove or disprove its supposed "commonness".

One point that I'd mention is that there is absolutely no record of any Jews rejecting Jesus as the Messiah based upon this claim. They rejected Him - and continue to do so - for other reasons, but apparently they didn't put much stock in the objection inherent in your question.
Dogknox
Posts: 5,687
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2/27/2017 11:03:35 PM
Posted: 3 months ago
At 2/27/2017 4:40:04 AM, annanicole wrote:
At 2/27/2017 4:17:12 AM, Dogknox wrote:
At 2/6/2016 2:47:13 AM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that the missing 3rd night of the prophesy is due to common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern was used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise.

And remember, the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. There are other topics that do that.

Good to meet you..
I am sure any one knows exactly what your question is..
How is this....
1) When Jesus died the sun was darkened!
Luke 23:45
And the sun was darkened, and the veil of the temple was rent in the midst.

2) Then Friday NIGHT then 3) Saturday.. NIGHT.. Thus three nights!

1) Died it was daylight before the sun went down on Friday.
2) Saturday in the tomb.
3) Sunday after dawn Jesus rose... Thus... The third DAY!
Mark 16:2
And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulcher at the rising of the sun.\

Why don't you try reading the guy's question?

annanicole the question starts out easy.. but regresses to end with. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise..

Question.. Do you have any instances, scriptural or otherwise?

"Prayer is the best armor we have, it is the key which opens the heart of God."
" St. Padre Pio
annanicole
Posts: 21,080
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2/27/2017 11:07:37 PM
Posted: 3 months ago
At 2/27/2017 11:03:35 PM, Dogknox wrote:
At 2/27/2017 4:40:04 AM, annanicole wrote:
At 2/27/2017 4:17:12 AM, Dogknox wrote:
At 2/6/2016 2:47:13 AM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that the missing 3rd night of the prophesy is due to common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern was used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise.

And remember, the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. There are other topics that do that.

Good to meet you..
I am sure any one knows exactly what your question is..
How is this....
1) When Jesus died the sun was darkened!
Luke 23:45
And the sun was darkened, and the veil of the temple was rent in the midst.

2) Then Friday NIGHT then 3) Saturday.. NIGHT.. Thus three nights!

1) Died it was daylight before the sun went down on Friday.
2) Saturday in the tomb.
3) Sunday after dawn Jesus rose... Thus... The third DAY!
Mark 16:2
And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulcher at the rising of the sun.\

Why don't you try reading the guy's question?

annanicole the question starts out easy.. but regresses to end with. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise..

Question.. Do you have any instances, scriptural or otherwise?

... and you rambled, and didn't give a one.
Dogknox
Posts: 5,687
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2/27/2017 11:20:35 PM
Posted: 3 months ago
At 2/27/2017 11:07:37 PM, annanicole wrote:
At 2/27/2017 11:03:35 PM, Dogknox wrote:
At 2/27/2017 4:40:04 AM, annanicole wrote:
At 2/27/2017 4:17:12 AM, Dogknox wrote:
At 2/6/2016 2:47:13 AM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that the missing 3rd night of the prophesy is due to common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern was used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise.

And remember, the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. There are other topics that do that.

Good to meet you..
I am sure any one knows exactly what your question is..
How is this....
1) When Jesus died the sun was darkened!
Luke 23:45
And the sun was darkened, and the veil of the temple was rent in the midst.

2) Then Friday NIGHT then 3) Saturday.. NIGHT.. Thus three nights!

1) Died it was daylight before the sun went down on Friday.
2) Saturday in the tomb.
3) Sunday after dawn Jesus rose... Thus... The third DAY!
Mark 16:2
And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulcher at the rising of the sun.\

Why don't you try reading the guy's question?

annanicole the question starts out easy.. but regresses to end with. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise..

Question.. Do you have any instances, scriptural or otherwise?

... and you rambled, and didn't give a one.
annanicole right you are.... I did not gave a one!! Clearly I did not get his question.
Do you have any instances, scriptural or otherwise?
annanicole
Posts: 21,080
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2/28/2017 3:20:06 AM
Posted: 3 months ago
At 2/27/2017 11:20:35 PM, Dogknox wrote:
At 2/27/2017 11:07:37 PM, annanicole wrote:
At 2/27/2017 11:03:35 PM, Dogknox wrote:
At 2/27/2017 4:40:04 AM, annanicole wrote:
At 2/27/2017 4:17:12 AM, Dogknox wrote:
At 2/6/2016 2:47:13 AM, rstrats wrote:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that the missing 3rd night of the prophesy is due to common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern was used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise.

And remember, the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. There are other topics that do that.

Good to meet you..
I am sure any one knows exactly what your question is..
How is this....
1) When Jesus died the sun was darkened!
Luke 23:45
And the sun was darkened, and the veil of the temple was rent in the midst.

2) Then Friday NIGHT then 3) Saturday.. NIGHT.. Thus three nights!

1) Died it was daylight before the sun went down on Friday.
2) Saturday in the tomb.
3) Sunday after dawn Jesus rose... Thus... The third DAY!
Mark 16:2
And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulcher at the rising of the sun.\

Why don't you try reading the guy's question?

annanicole the question starts out easy.. but regresses to end with. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise..

Question.. Do you have any instances, scriptural or otherwise?

... and you rambled, and didn't give a one.
annanicole right you are.... I did not gave a one!! Clearly I did not get his question.
Do you have any instances, scriptural or otherwise?

There is an instance in the OT, but I'd have to look it up.
rstrats
Posts: 87
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2/28/2017 3:57:24 PM
Posted: 3 months ago
annanicole,
re: "There is an instance in the OT, but I'd have to look it up."

I wonder if you could look it up when you get an extra moment?
rstrats
Posts: 87
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2/28/2017 4:20:28 PM
Posted: 3 months ago
annanicole,
re: "I wouldn't necessarily say it was a 'common' idiom..."

You wouldn't, but there have been some 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection advocates who have tried to explain the missing night time by saying that the Messiah was using common idiomatic language.

re: "...and one need not undertake to prove or disprove its supposed 'commonness'."

I of course do not need to; I'm simply curious.