Total Posts:7|Showing Posts:1-7
Jump to topic:

Firearm Ownership in America

Throwback
Posts: 545
Add as Friend
Challenge to a Debate
Send a Message
8/11/2016 3:27:29 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
The framers of the U.S. Constitution created a founding document which enumerated federal powers. All other powers were reserved to the respective states and the people. Why, then, did they insist soon after, when the first 10 amendments to the constitution were ratified, that the right to keep and bear arms by the people be enumerated and specifically protected. Without this 2nd amendment protection, the right to keep and bear arms was not enumerated as a federal power, meaning there was no federal jurisdiction.
"...But yet the Son of man, when he cometh, shall he find, think you, faith on earth?"
[Luke 18:8]
FaustianJustice
Posts: 8,552
Add as Friend
Challenge to a Debate
Send a Message
8/11/2016 2:24:29 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 8/11/2016 3:27:29 AM, Throwback wrote:
The framers of the U.S. Constitution created a founding document which enumerated federal powers. All other powers were reserved to the respective states and the people. Why, then, did they insist soon after, when the first 10 amendments to the constitution were ratified, that the right to keep and bear arms by the people be enumerated and specifically protected. Without this 2nd amendment protection, the right to keep and bear arms was not enumerated as a federal power, meaning there was no federal jurisdiction.

They probably felt that words like "the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed" to be unambiguous.

Its not a federal power, its a right enumerated to the people, and like all rights enumerated to the people, its protected (or at least should be) at all levels of government. 'Jurisdiction' not needed.
Here we have an advocate for Islamic arranged marriages demonstrating that children can consent to sex.
http://www.debate.org...
Throwback
Posts: 545
Add as Friend
Challenge to a Debate
Send a Message
8/11/2016 2:32:22 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 8/11/2016 2:24:29 PM, FaustianJustice wrote:
At 8/11/2016 3:27:29 AM, Throwback wrote:
The framers of the U.S. Constitution created a founding document which enumerated federal powers. All other powers were reserved to the respective states and the people. Why, then, did they insist soon after, when the first 10 amendments to the constitution were ratified, that the right to keep and bear arms by the people be enumerated and specifically protected. Without this 2nd amendment protection, the right to keep and bear arms was not enumerated as a federal power, meaning there was no federal jurisdiction.

They probably felt that words like "the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed" to be unambiguous.

Its not a federal power, its a right enumerated to the people, and like all rights enumerated to the people, its protected (or at least should be) at all levels of government. 'Jurisdiction' not needed.

I don't think I was clear. I apologize. Prior to the first ten amendments, the Constitution itself was sufficient to keep the federal government from disarming the citizens, as it was outside their scope of authority to even attempt it. My question was aimed at why they felt that right, among others, was so important that although inviolable under the constitution, the amendment was added later under the first U.S. Congress. It only punctuated an undeniable right already granted by the constitution.
"...But yet the Son of man, when he cometh, shall he find, think you, faith on earth?"
[Luke 18:8]
Skepsikyma
Posts: 9,428
Add as Friend
Challenge to a Debate
Send a Message
8/11/2016 4:02:03 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 8/11/2016 2:32:22 PM, Throwback wrote:
At 8/11/2016 2:24:29 PM, FaustianJustice wrote:
At 8/11/2016 3:27:29 AM, Throwback wrote:
The framers of the U.S. Constitution created a founding document which enumerated federal powers. All other powers were reserved to the respective states and the people. Why, then, did they insist soon after, when the first 10 amendments to the constitution were ratified, that the right to keep and bear arms by the people be enumerated and specifically protected. Without this 2nd amendment protection, the right to keep and bear arms was not enumerated as a federal power, meaning there was no federal jurisdiction.

They probably felt that words like "the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed" to be unambiguous.

Its not a federal power, its a right enumerated to the people, and like all rights enumerated to the people, its protected (or at least should be) at all levels of government. 'Jurisdiction' not needed.

I don't think I was clear. I apologize. Prior to the first ten amendments, the Constitution itself was sufficient to keep the federal government from disarming the citizens, as it was outside their scope of authority to even attempt it. My question was aimed at why they felt that right, among others, was so important that although inviolable under the constitution, the amendment was added later under the first U.S. Congress. It only punctuated an undeniable right already granted by the constitution.

If it hadn't been there, the fourteenth amendment would have given the federal government that power.

The Bill of Rights was put in so that, even were the government to expand its power, there were certain sacred things that they could never touch.
"Partout ou vous verrez un autel, la se trouve la civilisation."
- Joseph de Maistre -

"We permit our jaded intellects to play with drugs of novelty for the fresh sensation that they arouse, though we know well there is no good in them, but only wasting at the last."
- Hilaire Belloc -

Virtutem videant intabescantque relicta
Throwback
Posts: 545
Add as Friend
Challenge to a Debate
Send a Message
8/11/2016 4:14:07 PM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 8/11/2016 4:02:03 PM, Skepsikyma wrote:
At 8/11/2016 2:32:22 PM, Throwback wrote:
At 8/11/2016 2:24:29 PM, FaustianJustice wrote:
At 8/11/2016 3:27:29 AM, Throwback wrote:
The framers of the U.S. Constitution created a founding document which enumerated federal powers. All other powers were reserved to the respective states and the people. Why, then, did they insist soon after, when the first 10 amendments to the constitution were ratified, that the right to keep and bear arms by the people be enumerated and specifically protected. Without this 2nd amendment protection, the right to keep and bear arms was not enumerated as a federal power, meaning there was no federal jurisdiction.

They probably felt that words like "the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed" to be unambiguous.

Its not a federal power, its a right enumerated to the people, and like all rights enumerated to the people, its protected (or at least should be) at all levels of government. 'Jurisdiction' not needed.

I don't think I was clear. I apologize. Prior to the first ten amendments, the Constitution itself was sufficient to keep the federal government from disarming the citizens, as it was outside their scope of authority to even attempt it. My question was aimed at why they felt that right, among others, was so important that although inviolable under the constitution, the amendment was added later under the first U.S. Congress. It only punctuated an undeniable right already granted by the constitution.

If it hadn't been there, the fourteenth amendment would have given the federal government that power.

The Bill of Rights was put in so that, even were the government to expand its power, there were certain sacred things that they could never touch.

I agree. The constitution was only ratified "as is" with the promise amendments to protect further rights would be considered in the first Congress. At the time, a promise meant you intended to do the thing promise; thus what became the bill of rights was passed. Although all rights of the federal government were listed to the exclusion of all others, some were fearful of overreach; others were fearful the enumeration of specific rights would eventually come to be misunderstood of an enumeration of citizen rights, to the exclusion of all others. I believe both were right.
"...But yet the Son of man, when he cometh, shall he find, think you, faith on earth?"
[Luke 18:8]
Heterodox
Posts: 323
Add as Friend
Challenge to a Debate
Send a Message
8/19/2016 9:26:10 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 8/11/2016 4:14:07 PM, Throwback wrote:
At 8/11/2016 4:02:03 PM, Skepsikyma wrote:
At 8/11/2016 2:32:22 PM, Throwback wrote:
At 8/11/2016 2:24:29 PM, FaustianJustice wrote:
At 8/11/2016 3:27:29 AM, Throwback wrote:
The framers of the U.S. Constitution created a founding document which enumerated federal powers. All other powers were reserved to the respective states and the people. Why, then, did they insist soon after, when the first 10 amendments to the constitution were ratified, that the right to keep and bear arms by the people be enumerated and specifically protected. Without this 2nd amendment protection, the right to keep and bear arms was not enumerated as a federal power, meaning there was no federal jurisdiction.

They probably felt that words like "the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed" to be unambiguous.

Its not a federal power, its a right enumerated to the people, and like all rights enumerated to the people, its protected (or at least should be) at all levels of government. 'Jurisdiction' not needed.

I don't think I was clear. I apologize. Prior to the first ten amendments, the Constitution itself was sufficient to keep the federal government from disarming the citizens, as it was outside their scope of authority to even attempt it. My question was aimed at why they felt that right, among others, was so important that although inviolable under the constitution, the amendment was added later under the first U.S. Congress. It only punctuated an undeniable right already granted by the constitution.

If it hadn't been there, the fourteenth amendment would have given the federal government that power.

The Bill of Rights was put in so that, even were the government to expand its power, there were certain sacred things that they could never touch.

I agree. The constitution was only ratified "as is" with the promise amendments to protect further rights would be considered in the first Congress. At the time, a promise meant you intended to do the thing promise; thus what became the bill of rights was passed. Although all rights of the federal government were listed to the exclusion of all others, some were fearful of overreach; others were fearful the enumeration of specific rights would eventually come to be misunderstood of an enumeration of citizen rights, to the exclusion of all others. I believe both were right.

I agree that it was added as a second layer of protection, a backup.

Thankfully so, as there are many things the government does that the constitution does not authorize. Unless you completely twist the meanings into something else, which is what has been done.

The constitution was written to tell the government what it could do, it outlined their authority. Now it's more usually used to argue what the government cannot do after they have done it.
Throwback
Posts: 545
Add as Friend
Challenge to a Debate
Send a Message
8/19/2016 11:47:52 AM
Posted: 1 year ago
At 8/19/2016 9:26:10 AM, Heterodox wrote:
At 8/11/2016 4:14:07 PM, Throwback wrote:
At 8/11/2016 4:02:03 PM, Skepsikyma wrote:
At 8/11/2016 2:32:22 PM, Throwback wrote:
At 8/11/2016 2:24:29 PM, FaustianJustice wrote:
At 8/11/2016 3:27:29 AM, Throwback wrote:
The framers of the U.S. Constitution created a founding document which enumerated federal powers. All other powers were reserved to the respective states and the people. Why, then, did they insist soon after, when the first 10 amendments to the constitution were ratified, that the right to keep and bear arms by the people be enumerated and specifically protected. Without this 2nd amendment protection, the right to keep and bear arms was not enumerated as a federal power, meaning there was no federal jurisdiction.

They probably felt that words like "the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed" to be unambiguous.

Its not a federal power, its a right enumerated to the people, and like all rights enumerated to the people, its protected (or at least should be) at all levels of government. 'Jurisdiction' not needed.

I don't think I was clear. I apologize. Prior to the first ten amendments, the Constitution itself was sufficient to keep the federal government from disarming the citizens, as it was outside their scope of authority to even attempt it. My question was aimed at why they felt that right, among others, was so important that although inviolable under the constitution, the amendment was added later under the first U.S. Congress. It only punctuated an undeniable right already granted by the constitution.

If it hadn't been there, the fourteenth amendment would have given the federal government that power.

The Bill of Rights was put in so that, even were the government to expand its power, there were certain sacred things that they could never touch.

I agree. The constitution was only ratified "as is" with the promise amendments to protect further rights would be considered in the first Congress. At the time, a promise meant you intended to do the thing promise; thus what became the bill of rights was passed. Although all rights of the federal government were listed to the exclusion of all others, some were fearful of overreach; others were fearful the enumeration of specific rights would eventually come to be misunderstood of an enumeration of citizen rights, to the exclusion of all others. I believe both were right.

I agree that it was added as a second layer of protection, a backup.

Thankfully so, as there are many things the government does that the constitution does not authorize. Unless you completely twist the meanings into something else, which is what has been done.

The constitution was written to tell the government what it could do, it outlined their authority. Now it's more usually used to argue what the government cannot do after they have done it.

Yep, it's upside down. It's amazing. The constitution is still there, but we're told by a majority of lawyers on the Supreme Court that it doesn't say what it says. It's been flipped upside down from its intent. I feel sorry for my kids. At least I can remember being free. They never were.
"...But yet the Son of man, when he cometh, shall he find, think you, faith on earth?"
[Luke 18:8]