Amazon.com Widgets

Does the Bible taken literally mean that all women should be lesbians

Asked by: MasturDbtor
  • It says "thou shalt not" not "mankind shalt not"

    Leviticus 18:22

    "Thou shalt not lie with mankind as with womankind. It is an abomination."

    They use the gender neutral "thou" instead of saying "Mankind shalt not..."

    So taken literally it would apply to both genders and would command that men be straight but that women would have to be lesbians.

  • The question is is taken literally not if interpreted

    If you take this literally it implies that all men should be straight and women lesbians. Obviously that was not how it was meant but it is bad phrasing. That is the literal meaning that you would take if you had no background knowledge. If you had background then you can decipher it correctly.

  • No no no

    First of all, It would be great to see if somebody with the ability to understand Biblical Hebrew would review some manuscripts written in Hebrew to give us the literal translation.

    Secondly, this is a commandment directed at men. So it means that men should not have sex with men (but men can with women). This also means that women should not have sex with other women.

    Thirdly, this is obviously a deliberate misunderstanding of the text. So, I will once again state that this is directed at men, to tell them what to do, which makes an example for the women to follow (heterosexuality).

    Nicehap puts it a bit better but I wanted to add my two cents.

  • Why is this even an issue?

    First of all, Leviticus is a book of laws directed at the Levites, or (male) priests. Taken in context, therefore, this statement is not forcing women to lie with each other. Second of all, the Bible is would be contradicting itself, as it says in Genesis, "A man shall leave his family, and he shall join his wife, and they will become one." Why, then, would women be instructed to practice homosexuality?

  • That's so dumb.

    Like nicehap said, this applies to the MALE GENDER.
    Christians and Jews know this. The story of Adam and Eve said thet God created Eve from Adam's rib. Women and men were LITERALLY MADE FOR EACH OTHER. This is exactly why Christians ans Jews in general are very anti-same gender marriages. There is a reason why the Lord created a woman companion for Adam. He did not choose for Adam to be a woman and partner her with a female.

  • The Bible verse is specifically referring to men i.e. the Male gender

    Reading the whole chapter from the beginning, one can easily understand that the instruction is specifically directed to the male gender.

    This is not to be assumed that the female-folk is less human but in Biblical/Jewish tradition, the male is seen as the head of the household. So the instruction is directed to them.


Leave a comment...
(Maximum 900 words)
Vajrasattva-LeRoy says2014-12-04T14:41:07.413
More Crap.
The answer, of course, is No.
If gender-neutral wording is used, then it applies to Both sexes.
If women only had sex with women, there wouldn't have been any babies produced,
so humanity would have become extinct a long time ago.
The Bible states "Be fruitful & multiply & subdue the earth."