I had to take the yes side, because, unfortunately, the "creator" of this poll does not know how to read things in context; or else simply chose to try and lie about the Bible.
If one reads on past Exodus 21:7, you will see that this is not about slaves. Israeli women could be sold as concubines (basically a lower tiered wife) and this is what this passage references. It also gives this woman many rights. If the man that "bought" her married another woman, then this woman had to still be given good treatment. If the man doesn't like her, she must be redeemed. If he decides to give her to his son in marriage, then she must be given equal rights as to that of a normal wife and daughter in law. She cannot be sold to foreigners. Lastly, if the man tries to violate these things, then she is free to go. Also, it is theorized that this was used to give a woman to a man when the woman's father was in poverty, so that she could have a better life.
If there is great controversy over a book, such as the Anti-Christ by Nietzsche, then one should take the time to read it before judging it. For something like Mein Kampf, one can torment their own mind by reading it to fully judge, but I would rather just look at his actions demonstrated by countless murders of innocent people. As for the Bible and Quran, I wouldn't expect anyone other than devout followers to have read the whole thing. However, having some exposure might do yourself good. I have read many of Plato's texts, however I wouldn't expect everybody to simply because the amount of material is so vast. Anyways the question is about Mein Kampf and my opinion on that one is no, we don't.
If you read Mein Kampf, as soon as you get to a part where Hitler advocates "liquidatation" of the Jews, do you need to read the rest of the book to determine whether or not it's valid?
This question also extends to other literature, like the bible and koran.
Do you need to read the entire koran when the koran states that you are allowed to buy women as sex SLAVES:
And (also forbidden are) all married women except those whom your right hands possess (this is) Allah's ordinance to you,
and lawful for you are (all women) besides those, provided that you seek (them) with your property, taking (them) in marriage not committing fornication.
Then as to those whom you profit by, give them their dowries as appointed; and there is no blame on you about what you mutually agree after what is appointed; surely Allah is Knowing, Wise.
The Quran, chapter 4 (An-Nisa), verse 24
Do you need to read the entire bible when it states it is permissible to sell your daughter as a slave:
"If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as male servants do.
If you say none of these books is saying something moral, how can the entire book stand as a document of morals? Is it possible for a book, otherwise filled with niceties, to completely destroy it's credibility by saying something as wrong as the things shown?