1st degree (perfect) price discriminationPosted 1 year Ago

In 1st-degree price discrimination, Can monopolists identify separate market segments as in 3rd degree? Or do they use an aggregate demand function?

For example, Let's say a monopolist has 2 separate markets with 2 separate demand functions (Market A & Market B).
When calculating 1st-degree price discrimination, Would a monopolist calculate this using the aggregated demand function of the 2 markets combined, Or calculate to separate demand functions according to the 2 markets, A & B?

Thank you in advance.
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