1-0-1 maybe?
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Voting Style: | Open | Point System: | 7 Point | ||
Started: | 3/6/2019 | Category: | Philosophy | ||
Updated: | 3 years ago | Status: | Post Voting Period | ||
Viewed: | 606 times | Debate No: | 120524 |
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Based on a theoretical assumption that reduction can be ultimate rather than remain infinite. 1-0-1 or something-nothing-something. Suggests an alternating left to right/ right to left flow of matter. Resulting in a scenario that allows for infinitely uninhibited imagination.
Just to be clear, Your claim is that the universe has and ultimate conclusion that it will revert to? Are you also theorizing that we can move between these plains? I don't believe we could reach this conclusion rationally. Rationally as in from a scientific view. Purely theoretically The dream state offers uninhibited imagination and has no need for any worldly postulates. My point being that we do not need multiple dimensions theory to imagine possible scenario. When you say 1-0-1 I think of pulse theory. It's pretty much like it sounds. The theory states that the universe is pulsing and that the big bang was just one pulse of many. I would start to debunk this theory by stating that there is no evidence the universe is or has any intention of condensing back to "0. " With this pulse theory you still run into the same problems of St. Thomas Aquines theories. I won't repeat them if you already know them but I'll probably reference back to them. (I ran out of words too) |
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Firstly let's make it clear that I do not claim anything.
I propose a simple philosophical theory, Which might loosely incorporate some basic scientific understanding. Creation/initiation theories whether that be God or Big Bangs tend to overlook 0 and start either at 1 or somewhere in between. Something from nothing is what intrigues me and this proposal simply provides an explanation for 0. An ultimate beginning is as yet another issue, Requiring further thought. I would certainly question your notion of universal intention. I would suggest universal inevitability. Whereby all potential/matter is subject to a continuous sequence. In brief: if there is an ultimate state then this infers no numerical infinite. Therefore suggesting no fractional infinite. Thereby 0 is inevitable. The rapidity and strength of fractional flow 1 - 0 enables a comparable flow 0 - 1. I apologise for the character limitation. But more often than not debaters either have very little to offer or forfeit.
So the reason you have a problem with debaters having nothing to offer is quite simple. Debaters argue the truth of claims. If you don't make a solid claim and continue to "move the goal posts" then there is no debate. As the Pro you are supposed to defend a claim and I'm supposed to contend it. I can accept that a theory you purpose may not have the ability to be scientifically verified due to lack of data. I still expect to be able to disprove the claim with logic. So onto your (not) claim. "if there is an ultimate state then this infers no numerical infinite. " What are the perimeters for an ultimate state? Are you referring to an ultimate end? "Therefore suggesting no fractional infinite. " If there is an ultimate end then infinite would have a point and we could fraction the timeline from point to point. "Thereby 0 is inevitable. " Or 0 already was. "The rapidity and strength of fractional flow 1 - 0 enables a comparable flow 0 - 1. " (1-0=1) u (0-1=-1) no fraction required. |
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