For all the knowledge accounted for in Shakespeare's plays, it seems illogical that he would have such a vast vocabulary and other traits present in his plays, such as all the imagery used in his works for which it is almost impossible that he could have had a visual knowledge of all those things. Further, a likely candidate for the true identity of Shakespeare, Edward De Vere, fits many of the attributes found in the writings. He was a true literary genius, receiving two master's degrees before 17, and sailed around all of Europe. It is more logical that Shakespeare is in fact a pen name for other candidates.
Shakespeare didn't write his plays. Sir Francis Bacon used a pen name so as not to hurt his career. Shakespeare's whole family was poor and illiterate and there is no proof he went to school. Even though he was poor, There are specific details about aristocracy in his plays. There are also many similarities between the works of Shakespeare and bacon. They also lived around the same time.
I am a 14 year old student, we have had this discussion in class. Shakespeare was believed in some stories to have been a women that used the identity of a man to get the plays into society. Because in the Elizebethan Era women didn't have many rights and they were not allowed to publish any work as well.