Of course not.
This is.... well a very sad poll.
Common sense tells you no. From my personal experience, most rape victims experience some form of arousal, though you get the occasional prude.
No, it is not consent. Arousal is a natural bodily function and a person's body that is aroused is only a reaction to stimulation.
It's a natural human response
No. If someone says no, than that means no. Forcing them to have sex without consent is rape whether they were aroused or not
im not even going to click on the link offered by forethelulz
This is a problem for boys who are molested. they will often have an erection when touched which makes them even more ashamed of what has happened to them.
If a woman gets a little bit wet in her vagina during rape, that does NOT mean she gave out her consent! If a man gets an erection during rape, that does NOT mean he gave out his consent!
In terms of this question, consent means that you're giving permission to someone to perform sexual acts on you. With rape, you aren't giving consent, as you're forced to have sex with an individual. Signs of arousal (such as getting "wet", getting an erection, or having an orgasm) doesn't mean that they consented to have sex. Biologically, when sexual acts are performed on you, you can get aroused. Consent as nothing to do with this.