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1

No

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3 comments
2

Yes and no

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5 comments
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Yes

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ladiesman says2018-10-01T19:45:32.5214397Z
@bilc02 How is morality both objective and subjective?
sometimes_smart says2018-10-11T02:21:15.5389672Z
@ladiesman The argument would probably resemble an agnostic position, I. E. Objective morality might exist, But it can never be known. Thus the only morality that can be known is subjective. Other than that I am just as lost as you.
RogerRefrain says2018-11-17T18:20:06.5482427Z
@sometimes_smart The people who are saying that an objective standpoint of morality could never be known are creating self-defeating statements. To claim something can't be known is to create a claim that attests some sort of knowledge of that particular thing.
kafkafranz says2018-12-15T01:03:01.7831714Z
Read Immanual Kantand the categorical imperative. That should explain any doubts.
ladiesman says2019-02-15T20:51:25.2123771Z
@thetaboosun I agree with that. I would also include genocide and rape. Maybe murder as well, But there are exceptions. Murder is legally defined as the “unlawful killing of another human being”, But it depends on the context. “Unlawful” is a relative term, So there are situations where it is legitimate to kill another person. But it does not apply to rape and genocide.

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